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Answer the question based on the following context: Patient specific guides (PSG) have been reported to improve overall component alignment in total knee arthroplasty (TKA). With more surgeons likely to consider this method of TKA in the future, this study was performed to establish whether there is a learning curve with use of PSG in TKA. Eighty-six consecutive PSG TKAs performed by one surgeon were retrospectively analyzed in two groups. The first 30 patients were compared to the second 56 patients with regards to their operative times and post-operative multi-planar alignments on computed tomography (CT) scan. Mean operative time was higher in the initial 30 cases compared to the second 56 cases (85 min vs. 78 min; p=0.001). No statistically significant differences were found in post-operative TKA alignment between the two groups.

Question: Total knee arthroplasty using patient-specific guides: Is there a learning curve?

This study suggests that there is a minimal learning curve with operative time associated with use of PSG in TKA. This study was unable to detect a significant learning curve with regards to restoration of mechanical knee alignment with the use of PSG in TKA.

Answer the question based on the following context: To assess the rate of canine eruption in alveolar clefts repaired with cancellous autograft versus cancellous autograft mixed with allograft. This was a retrospective cohort study of patients in mixed dentition who underwent primary repair of uni- or bilateral alveolar cleft defects. Patients were divided into 2 groups based on the method of bony reconstruction (group 1, iliac crest autograft; group 2, iliac crest autograft harvested through a minimal access approach and mixed 1:2 with demineralized bone allograft). Secondary predictor variables were demographic and anatomic factors potentially related to canine eruption. The outcome variable was the velocity of canine eruption, measured as the change in vertical distance from the incisal edge to the maxillary occlusal plane (millimeters per month). Descriptive, bivariate, and linear regression statistics were computed. The study sample included 57 alveolar cleft defects; 19 were repaired with autograft alone and 38 were repaired with autograft plus allograft. The sample's mean age was 9.9 ± 2.3 years at the time of repair. Thirty-one clefts (54.4%) were part of a bilateral deformity. Canine root formation was 50% complete at the time of surgery in most patients (59.6%). Mean duration of follow-up was 23.7 ± 13.2 months. Mean canine eruption velocity was 0.20 ± 0.18 mm per month and was not associated with the method of bony repair (P = .58).

Question: Is Canine Eruption Velocity Affected by the Presence of Allograft Within a Repaired Alveolar Cleft?

The use of allograft bone to augment bone graft volume results in similar rates of canine eruption compared with autograft bone alone.

Answer the question based on the following context: Anterior clinoid region meningiomas may infiltrate the bone over which they arise, therefore requiring an anterior clinoidectomy to achieve a Simpson grade 1 resection. A clinoidectomy, however, is not without risks. We performed a study of diagnostic accuracy investigating whether preoperative imaging could predict tumor involvement of the clinoid, and thereby tailor the degree of bony removal. Patients having undergone resection of a clinoid region meningioma between 2001 and 2011 were identified. Included in further analysis were those patients in whom a clinoidectomy was performed with subsequent pathologically confirmed presence or absence of tumor in the clinoid process on decalcified specimens. Two neuroradiologists, blinded to pathology results, independently reviewed available preoperative imaging and stated whether or not they anticipated the clinoid to be involved by tumor. Interobserver agreement and the ability to accurately predict tumor involvement of the clinoid were then analyzed. Sixty-two patients were included in the final analysis. Interobserver agreement was 100%. Sensitivity and specificity of preoperative imaging to predict tumor involvement was 89% and 52%, respectively, with positive and negative likelihood ratios of 1.85 and 0.20. Positive and negative predictive values were 73% and 76%, respectively.

Question: Can Preoperative Imaging Predict Tumor Involvement of the Anterior Clinoid in Clinoid Region Meningiomas?

Preoperative imaging of clinoid region meningiomas can accurately predict the presence or absence of tumor involvement of the clinoid in only approximately 75% of cases. In light of the fact that a quarter of patients with radiographically negative clinoids will have tumor present on pathological analysis, we recommend a clinoidectomy for all clinoid region meningiomas.

Answer the question based on the following context: Parkinson's disease (PD) increases the risk of care-dependency (CDP). While motor functions worsen continuously, the assignment of patients to CDP occurs categorically. It is unknown how many patients are already sufficiently severely impaired to be categorised as CDP yet do not have an officially acknowledged level of CDP. A random sample of 1,449 PD outpatients was clinically characterised by office-based neurologists, including impairments of activities of daily living (ADL with the Unified Parkinson's Disease Rating scale (UPDRS subscale II) as well as regarding the presence of dementia according to DSM-IV criteria and the Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE). Depression was screened for with the Montgomery-Asberg Depression Rating Scale (MADRS). For each patient the officially acknowledged level of CDP was documented; for patients without official CDP level, the clinician appraised whether the patient was care-dependent anyhow. 266 patients (18.3%) were officially acknowledged as care-dependent, while n=121 patients (8.5%) were not, yet were appraised to be care-dependent according to the clinician. Compared to non-CDP patients, they differed on every measure considered. Compared to patients with an official CDP, their PD duration was significantly shorter (6.0 vs. 8.0 years, p<0.01) and they were less severely impaired in ADL (13.3 vs. 15.5, p<0.01). They did not differ regarding the rates of dementia (52.9 vs. 44.9%, p=0.203) or depression according to the MADRS (13.1 vs. 13.1, p=0.989).

Question: Care-Dependency in Parkinson's Disease: More Frequent than Assumed?

ADL impairments are the most important predictor for CDP while dementia and depression are not considered despite the impairments that are additionally caused by them.

Answer the question based on the following context: Almost half of all children in South Asia are stunted. Although agriculture has the potential to be a strong driver of undernutrition reduction and serves as the main source of livelihood for over half of South Asia's population, its potential to reduce undernutrition is currently not being realized. The Leveraging Agriculture for Nutrition in South Asia (LANSA) research consortium seeks to understand how agriculture and agrifood systems can be better designed to improve nutrition in South Asia. In 2013 and 2014, LANSA carried out interviews with stakeholders influential in, and/or knowledgeable of, agriculture-nutrition policy in India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh, to gain a better understanding of the institutional and political factors surrounding the nutrition sensitivity of agriculture in the region. Semistructured interviews were carried out in India, Bangladesh, and Pakistan with a total of 56 stakeholders representing international organizations, research, government, civil society, donors, and the private sector. The findings point to mixed perspectives on countries' policy sensitivity toward nutrition. There was consensus among stakeholders on the importance of political commitment to nutrition, improving nutrition literacy, strengthening capacities, and improving the use of financial resources.

Question: Is There an Enabling Environment for Nutrition-Sensitive Agriculture in South Asia?

Although there are different ways in which South Asian agriculture can improve its impact on nutrition, sensitizing key influencers to the importance of nutrition for the health of a country's population appears as a critical issue. This should in turn serve as the premise for political commitment, intersectoral coordination to implement nutrition-relevant policies, adequately resourced nutrition-specific and nutrition-sensitive programs, and sufficient capacities at all levels.

Answer the question based on the following context: Acute renal failure following cardiac surgery is not uncommon and carries a high level of morbidity and mortality. The aim of our study was to determine whether perioperative sodium bicarbonate infusion (POSBI) would decrease acute kidney injury in cardiac surgery patients and improve post-operative outcomes. A retrospective analysis of 318 cardiac surgery patients from 2008-2011 was performed. Clinical parameters were compared in patients receiving POSBI versus sodium chloride. Serum creatinine levels were measured in the first five post-operative days. The primary outcome measured was the number of patients developing post-operative renal injury. Secondary outcomes included three-month mortality, intensive care unit and hospital length of stay. Patients given POSBI showed no significant differences compared to the normal saline cohort in regards to increases in serum creatinine [<25% rise in Cr: 93% vs 94%;>25% rise in Cr: 6% vs 6%;>50% rise in Cr: 1% vs 1%;>100% rise in Cr: 1% vs 0%, all with p-value>0.99]. There were fewer patients with AKIN stage 1 renal failure receiving POSBI [8% vs 28%, p = 0.02]however there was no difference between POSBI and sodium chloride cohorts in AKIN stages 2 and 3 renal failure. Mortality, duration of hospitalization and ICU stay were not statistically significant.

Question: RENAL PROTECTION IN THE CARDIAC SURGERY PATIENT: PERI-OPERATIVE SODIUM BICARBONATE INFUSION (POSBI) OR NOT?

POSBI resulted in fewer patients developing AKIN stage 1 renal failure. Despite this, there appears to be little benefit in the prevention of acute kidney injury after 48 hours or mortality reduction in cardiac surgery patients.

Answer the question based on the following context: There is no clear consensus on whether antenatal screening for hepatitis C (HCV) should be universal, or based on an assessment of risk factors.AIM: To report the HCV status and risk factors for HCV amongst women delivering at a tertiary metropolitan hospital in order to better understand the implications of changing from universal to risk factor based HCV screening. An audit of practice was performed at Mater Mothers' Hospitals (Brisbane) using routinely collected data from 2007 to 2013 (n = 57,659). The demographic and clinical characteristics of HCV-positive women (n = 281) were compared with those with a negative result (n = 57,378), and compared for the presence or absence of risk factors for HCV. From a cohort of 57,659 women, 281 (0.5%) women were HCV positive. HCV-positive women were more likely to have received blood products (10.0 vs 3.1%; P<0.001), have a history of illicit drug use (72.2 vs 9.8%; P<0.001), and have at least one risk factor for HCV infection (92 vs 17%; P<0.001). Of the HCV-positive women, only seven of the 281 (2.5%) had no identifiable risk factor, whilst most (83%) HCV-negative women did not have any documented risk factor for HCV infection.

Question: Antenatal screening for hepatitis C: Universal or risk factor based?

Most women testing positive for HCV antibodies have identifiable risk factors; however, a small number will not be detected if a risk factor based screening approach is adopted. The benefits of universal screening must be weighed against the potential cost savings of a risk factor based screening program.

Answer the question based on the following context: Rosacea is an inflammatory skin disease with a chronic course. In the past, the association between rosacea and smoking was examined only in a few studies. The objective of this study is to investigate the prevalence and the influence of smoking in rosacea patients. This prospective cross-sectional study includes 200 rosacea patients and 200 age- and gender-matched rosacea-free controls. Using National Rosacea Society Expert Committee classification, we divided patients into three subgroups as having erythematotelangiectatic (ETR), papulopustular (PPR), and phymatous rosacea (PhR). Demographic data, risk factors, and smoking habits were recorded. In multivariate analysis, the prevalence of smoking was significantly higher (66%) among patients compared with controls. ETR subtype (43.5%) was found to be significantly higher among active smokers (p < 0.001). Considering the risk factors, caffeine intake and alcohol consumption could not be evaluated because of their never or rarely intake. Whereas rates of photosensitive skin type and positive family history were significantly prominent in ETR patients (p < 0.001). While PhR was mostly detected in men who are very old, a significant tendency was found to develop ETR in women.

Question: Is the effect of smoking on rosacea still somewhat of a mystery?

While a significantly increased risk of developing rosacea among smokers was observed in this study, ETR seems to be the disease of active smokers. Further studies are required for better understanding of the association between rosacea and smoking.

Answer the question based on the following context: Case management services have been implemented in suicide prevention programs. To investigate whether case management is an effective strategy for reducing the risks of repeated suicide attempts and completed suicides in a city with high suicide rates in northern Taiwan. The Suicide Prevention Center of Keelung City (KSPC) was established in April 2005. Subjects included a consecutive sample of individuals (N = 2,496) registered in KSPC databases between January 1, 2006, and December 31, 2011, with at least one episode of nonfatal self-harm. Subjects were tracked for the duration of the study. Of all the subjects, 1,013 (40.6%) received case management services; 416 (16.7%) had at least one other deliberate self-harm episode and 52 (2.1%) eventually died by suicide. No significant differences were found in the risks of repeated self-harm and completed suicides between suicide survivors who received case management and those who refused the services. However, a significant reduction in suicide rates was found after KSPC was established.

Question: Is Case Management Effective for Long-Lasting Suicide Prevention?

Findings suggest that case management services might not reduce the risks of suicide repetition among suicide survivors during long-term follow-up. Future investigation is warranted to determine factors impacting the downward trend of suicide rates.

Answer the question based on the following context: Computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are the main imaging modalities used for analysis of adrenal lesions. We compared the ability of CT and MRI to detect and characterize benign adrenal lesions. Unenhanced abdominal CT and MRI were performed in 16 patients (age range 39-77), and reviewed by a radiologist with 6years of experience in abdominal imaging. The presence, number, size and structure of each mass were analyzed and compared between the two modalities. There were 18 adrenal masses in 11 patients, four patients had adrenal hyperplasia (AH), whereas one patient had left-sided AH and right-sided adenoma. Ten masses were≥2cm in diameter, and were perfectly depicted using CT and all MRI techniques. There were nine masses with diameter<2cm detected by CT, three of them were missed using MRI. AH was detected in five patients using CT, but its mild form was missed in one patient using MRI. Four masses with attenuation values of>10Hounsfield units could not be characterized using unenhanced CT, but three of them were characterized using MRI.

Question: Should we use CT or MRI for detection and characterization of benign adrenal lesions?

CT has higher sensitivity for detection of small adrenal tumours and adrenal hyperplasia than MRI. MRI is an important tool in characterization of adrenal masses that could not be characterized using unenhanced CT.

Answer the question based on the following context: Pediatric burns research has increasingly been recognized as a sub-specialty of its own. The aim of this study was to assess and analyze the publication patterns of the pediatric burns literature over the last six decades. A search strategy for the Web of Science database was designed for pediatric burns publications, with output analyzed between two periods: 1945-1999 (period 1) and 2000-2013 (period 2). There were 1133 and 1194 publications for periods 1 (1945-1999) and 2 (2000-2013), respectively. The mean citation counts of the top 50 publications were 77 (range 45-278) and 49 (range 33-145) for periods 1 and 2, respectively. There were 26 and 20 authors with two or more publications in the top 50 list in periods 1 and 2, respectively. Of these there are two authors that have published 47 papers in both combined time-periods. There were 29 and 9 journals that have published 50% of the publications for time-period 1 and 2 respectively. In period 2, there were two burns journals that have published 37.2% of the total articles.

Question: Pediatric burns research: A history or an evolution?

Pediatric burns research has evolved from an associated, dispersed entity into a consolidated sub-specialty that has been successfully integrated into mainstream burns journals.

Answer the question based on the following context: The uneven distribution of allied health professionals (AHPs) in rural and remote Australia and other countries is well documented. In Australia, like elsewhere, service delivery to rural and remote communities is complicated because relatively small numbers of clients are dispersed over large geographic areas. This uneven distribution of AHPs impacts significantly on the provision of services particularly in areas of special need such as mental health, aged care and disability services. This study aimed to determine the relative importance that AHPs (physiotherapists, occupational therapists, speech pathologists and psychologists - "therapists") living in a rural area of Australia and working with people with disability, place on different job characteristics and how these may affect their retention. A cross-sectional survey was conducted using an online questionnaire distributed to AHPs working with people with disability in a rural area of Australia over a 3-month period. Information was sought about various aspects of the AHPs' current job, and their workforce preferences were explored using a best-worst scaling discrete choice experiment (BWSDCE). Conditional logistic and latent class regression models were used to determine AHPs' relative preferences for six different job attributes. One hundred ninety-nine AHPs completed the survey; response rate was 51 %. Of those, 165 completed the BWSDCE task. For this group of AHPs, "high autonomy of practice" is the most valued attribute level, followed by "travel BWSDCE arrangements: one or less nights away per month", "travel arrangements: two or three nights away per month" and "adequate access to professional development". On the other hand, the least valued attribute levels were "travel arrangements: four or more nights per month", "limited autonomy of practice" and "minimal access to professional development". Except for "some job flexibility", all other attributes had a statistical influence on AHPs' job preference. Preferences differed according to age, marital status and having dependent children.

Question: Should I stay or should I go?

This study allowed the identification of factors that contribute to AHPs' employment decisions about staying and working in a rural area. This information can improve job designs in rural areas to increase retention.

Answer the question based on the following context: To study a new technique for cleaning microcatheters for reuse after NBCA embolization ("NBCA"), and to evaluate the clinical reusability of microcatheters that were cleaned with gelatin sponge particles after NBCA. Four cleaning solution flushes for microcatheters after NBCA injection-5 % glucose ("glucose") only, Lipiodol-glucose, gelatin sponge particles ("gelatin")-glucose, and Lipiodol-gelatin-glucose-were examined experimentally. These solutions were evaluated by performing three examinations: a microcatheter resistance test based on the time taken to pass water through the microcatheter, a microcatheter resistance test based on the ease of insertion of a microguidewire, and observations of the inner surfaces of the cylinders after NBCA. Microcatheters that had already been used in NBCA were cleaned using this new technique and then applied in 20 clinical sessions (19 patients). There was no significant difference in water passage time between the controls and the groups that received a gelatin flush. In the resistance test based on the insertion of a microguidewire, groups that received a gelatin flush showed significantly less resistance than the groups that did not receive a gelatin flush. Observations of the inner surfaces of the cylinders indicated that cleaning with gelatin can lead to inner surfaces that are almost indistinguishable from control surfaces in terms of cleanliness. All clinical procedures involving Lipiodol-gelatin-glucose flushes were performed without any technical difficulties or complications.

Question: Can microcatheters be cleaned for reuse after NBCA embolization?

Applying the new cleaning technique utilizing gelatin sponge particles to microcatheters after NBCA ensures that they are clean enough to be reused.

Answer the question based on the following context: We evaluate the level of anxiety and depression among patients with spinal cord injury (SCI) in relation with their religious coping and spiritual health. Brain and Spinal Cord Injury Repair Research Center, Neuroscience Institute, Tehran University of Medical Sciences, Tehran, Iran. A sample of patients with SCI participated in this cross-sectional study. They completed a sociodemographic questionnaire, the Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale, the Brief Religious Coping Questionnaire and the Spiritual Well-being Scale. Then, the association between anxiety, depression and independent variables was examined. In all, 213 patients with SCI were studied. Of these, 64 (30%) have had anxiety and 32 (15%) have had depression. Multiple logistic regression analyses revealed that gender (odds ratio (OR) for female=3.34, 95% confidence interval (CI)=1.31-8.51, P=0.011), employment (OR for unemployed=5.71, 95% CI=1.17-27.78, P=0.031), negative religious coping (OR=1.15, 95% CI=1.04-1.28, P=0.006) and existential spiritual well-being (OR=0.93, 95% CI=0.89-0.97, P=0.003) were significant contributing factors to anxiety (Table 3), whereas negative religious coping (OR=1.21, 95% CI=1.06-1.37, P=0.004) and existential spiritual well-being (OR=0.90, 95% CI=0.84-0.96, P=0.001) were significant contributing factors to depression.

Question: Does religious coping and spirituality have a moderating role on depression and anxiety in patients with spinal cord injury?

The findings indicated that depression and anxiety are two psychologically important side effects after SCI. The findings also indicated that religion and spiritual well-being have a moderating role on occurrence of depression and anxiety.

Answer the question based on the following context: To describe our robot-assisted nephroureterectomy (RNU) technique for benign indications and RNU with en bloc excision of bladder cuff (BCE) and lymphadenectomy (LND) for malignant indications using the da Vinci Si and da Vinci Xi robotic platform, with its pros and cons. The port placement described for Si can be used for standard and S robotic systems. This is the first report in the literature on the use of the da Vinci Xi robotic platform for RNU. After a substantial experience of RNU using different da Vinci robots from the standard to the Si platform in a single-docking fashion for benign and malignant conditions, we started using the newly released da Vinci Xi robot since 2014. The most important differences are in port placement and effective use of the features of da Vinci Xi robot while performing simultaneous upper and lower tract surgery. Patient positioning, port placement, step-by-step technique of single docking RNU-LND-BCE using the da Vinci Si and da Vinci Xi robot are shown in an accompanying video with the goal that centres using either robotic system benefit from the hints and tips. The first segment of video describes RNU-LND-BCE using the da Vinci Si followed by the da Vinci Xi to highlight differences. There was no need for patient repositioning or robot re-docking with the new da Vinci Xi robotic platform. We have experience of using different robotic systems for single docking RNU in 70 cases for benign (15) and malignant (55) conditions. The da Vinci Xi robotic platform helps operating room personnel in its easy movement, allows easier patient side-docking with the help of its boom feature, in addition to easy and swift movements of the robotic arms. The patient clearance feature can be used to avoid collision with the robotic arms or the patient's body. In patients with challenging body habitus and in situations where bladder cuff management is difficult, modifications can be made through reassigning the camera to a different port with utilisation of the retargeting feature of the da Vinci Xi when working on the bladder cuff or in the pelvis. The vision of the camera used for da Vinci Xi was initially felt to be inferior to that of the da Vinci Si; however, with a subsequent software upgrade this was much improved. The base of the da Vinci Xi is bigger, which does not slide and occasionally requires a change in table placement/operating room setup, and requires side-docking especially when dealing with very tall and obese patients for pelvic surgery.

Question: Does transition from the da Vinci Si to Xi robotic platform impact single-docking technique for robot-assisted laparoscopic nephroureterectomy?

RNU alone or with LND-BCE is a challenging surgical procedure that addresses the upper and lower urinary tract simultaneously. Single docking and single robotic port placement for RNU-LND-BCE has evolved with the development of different generations of the robotic system. These procedures can be performed safely and effectively using the da Vinci S, Si or Xi robotic platform. The new da Vinci Xi robotic platform is more user-friendly, has easy installation, and is intuitive for surgeons using its features.

Answer the question based on the following context: With a focus on raising the quality of hernia care through creation of educational programs, SAGES formed the Hernia Task Force (HTF). This study used needs assessment survey to target opportunities for improving surgical training and thus patient outcomes and experience. This qualitative study included structured interviews and online surveys of key stakeholders: HTF members, surgeons, nurses, patients, hospital administrators, healthcare payers and medical suppliers. Questions included perceptions of recurrence and complication rates, their etiologies, perceived deficits in current hernia care and the most effective and training modalities. A total of 841 participants included 665 surgeons, 66 patient care team members, 12 hospital administrators and 14 medical supply providers. Assessment of technical approach revealed that nearly 26 % of surgeons apply the same, limited range of techniques to all patients without evaluation of patient-specific factors. The majority (71 %) of surgeon respondents related hernia recurrence rates nearing 25 % or more. HTF members implicated surgeon factors (deficits in knowledge/technique, etc.) as primary determinants of recurrences, whereas nurses, medical supply providers and hospital administrators implicated patient health factors. Surgeons preferred attending conferences (82 %), reading periodicals/publications (71 %), watching videos (59 %) and communicating with peers (57 %) for learning and skill improvement. Topics of the greatest interest were advanced techniques for hernia repairs (71 %), preoperative and intraoperative decision making (56 %) and patient outcomes (64 %). Eighty-six percent of nurses felt that there was room for improvement in hernia patient safety and teamwork in the OR. Only 24 % believed that the patients had adequate preoperative education.

Question: Raising the quality of hernia care: Is there a need?

Major reported deficits in hernia care include: lack of standardization in training and care, "one size fits all" technical approach and inadequate patient follow-up/outcome measures. There is a need for a comprehensive, flexible and tailored educational program to equip surgeons and their teams to raise the quality of hernia care and bring greater value to their patients.

Answer the question based on the following context: Sympatric speciation is today generally viewed as plausible, and some well-supported examples exist, but its relative contribution to biodiversity remains to be established. We here quantify geographic overlap of sister species of heliconiine butterflies, and use age-range correlations and spatial simulations of the geography of speciation to infer the frequency of sympatric speciation. We also test whether shifts in mimetic wing colour pattern, host plant use and climate niche play a role in speciation, and whether such shifts are associated with sympatry. Approximately a third of all heliconiine sister species pairs exhibit near complete range overlap, and analyses of the observed patterns of range overlap suggest that sympatric speciation contributes 32%-95% of speciation events. Müllerian mimicry colour patterns and host plant choice are highly labile traits that seem to be associated with speciation, but we find no association between shifts in these traits and range overlap. In contrast, climatic niches of sister species are more conserved.

Question: Extensive range overlap between heliconiine sister species: evidence for sympatric speciation in butterflies?

Unlike birds and mammals, sister species of heliconiines are often sympatric and our inferences using the most recent comparative methods suggest that sympatric speciation is common. However, if sister species spread rapidly into sympatry (e.g. due to their similar climatic niches), then assumptions underlying our methods would be violated. Furthermore, although we find some evidence for the role of ecology in speciation, ecological shifts did not show the associations with range overlap expected under sympatric speciation. We delimit species of heliconiines in three different ways, based on "strict and " "relaxed" biological species concepts (BSC), as well as on a surrogate for the widely-used "diagnostic" version of the phylogenetic species concept (PSC). We show that one reason why more sympatric speciation is inferred in heliconiines than in birds may be due to a different culture of species delimitation in the two groups. To establish whether heliconiines are exceptional will require biogeographic comparative studies for a wider range of animal taxa including many more invertebrates.

Answer the question based on the following context: This is the first randomized controlled multicenter trial to evaluate the effect of two treatments of maternal attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) on response to parent-child training targeting children's external psychopathology. Mother-child dyads (n = 144; ADHD according to DSM-IV; children: 73.5% males, mean age 9.4 years) from five specialized university outpatient units in Germany were centrally randomized to multimodal maternal ADHD treatment [group psychotherapy plus open methylphenidate medication; treatment group (TG): n = 77] or to clinical management [supportive counseling without psychotherapy or psychopharmacotherapy; control group (CG): n = 67]. After 12 weeks, the maternal ADHD treatment was supplemented by individual parent-child training for all dyads. The primary outcome was a change in the children's externalizing symptom scores (investigator blinded to the treatment assignment) from baseline to the end of the parent-child training 6 months later. Maintenance therapy continued for another 6 months. An intention-to-treat analysis was performed within a linear regression model, controlling for baseline and center after multiple imputations of missing values. Exactly, 206 dyads were assessed for eligibility, 144 were randomized, and 143 were analyzed (TG: n = 77; CG: n = 66). After 6 months, no significant between-group differences were found in change scores for children's externalizing symptoms (adjusted mean TG-mean CG=1.1, 95% confidence interval -0.5-2.7; p = .1854), although maternal psychopathology improved more in the TG. Children's externalizing symptom scores improved from a mean of 14.8 at baseline to 11.4 (TG) and 10.3 (CG) after 6 months and to 10.8 (TG) and 10.1 (CG) after 1 year. No severe harms related to study treatments were found, but adverse events were more frequent in TG mothers than in CG mothers.

Question: Does intensive multimodal treatment for maternal ADHD improve the efficacy of parent training for children with ADHD?

The response in children's externalizing psychopathology did not differ between maternal treatment groups. However, multimodal treatment was associated with more improvement in maternal ADHD. Child and maternal treatment gains were stable (CCT-ISRCTN73911400).

Answer the question based on the following context: Studies show that stroke survivors typically have lower life satisfaction than persons who have not been diagnosed with stroke. To determine if significant differences in life satisfaction exist between stroke survivors with and without functional limitations and whether specific functional limitations, as well as participation in outpatient rehabilitation affect the odds of reported life satisfaction for stroke survivors. Chi square analysis was used to examine data from the 2013 BRFSS to determine the relationship of functional limitations as well as participation in rehabilitation services to life satisfaction for stroke survivors. Logistic regression analysis was used to determine what variables increased the odds of reported poor life satisfaction. Stroke survivors experiencing difficulty with cognition, depression and IADLs showed significantly lower life satisfaction than those who did not experience these functional limitations. Survivors exhibiting activity limitations had almost twice the odds of reporting poor life satisfaction and those experiencing limitations in cognition and IADLs had 2.88 times and 1.81 times the odds as others without these limitations of reporting poor life satisfaction, respectively. Participation in outpatient rehabilitation reduced the odds of reporting of poor life satisfaction by approximately one half.

Question: Does type of disability and participation in rehabilitation affect satisfaction of stroke survivors?

Rehabilitation focused on addressing these functional limitations would increase life satisfaction for persons diagnosed with stroke. Future research on specific types of cognitive and daily living limitations would assist policy makers and referral sources in making appropriate referrals to rehabilitation.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate the diagnostic value of the 3rd hour plasma glucose level in the 100 g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). Records of all pregnant patients with abnormal 50 g glucose challenge test (GCT) between January 2005 and December 2013 were reviewed (n=1963). The 100 g OGTT results were analyzed separately for both Carpenter&Couston (CC) and National Diabetes Data Group (NDDG) criteria. The number of patients diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) was 297 (15.1%) according to CC criteria and 166 (8.4%) according to NDDG criteria. The 1st hour plasma glucose level showed the highest correlation with GDM diagnosis (ρ=0.595 for CC and ρ=0.567 for NDDG). However, the 3rd hour plasma glucose level showed the weakest correlation with GDM diagnosis (ρ=0.216 for CC and ρ=0.213 for NDDG). The 3rd hour value of 100 g OGTT was one of the two elevated measurements in 10.8% of patients when CC criteria are used and in 13.8% of patients when NDDG criteria are used.

Question: Is omitting the 3rd hour measurement in the 100 g oral glucose tolerance test feasible?

Omitting 3rd hour plasma glucose measurement in 100 g OGTT results in unacceptable rates of underdiagnosed patients.

Answer the question based on the following context: Surgeons often have concerns about whether to place screws in narrow pedicles for correction of scoliosis. The aim of this study was to use pedicle channel grades based on preoperative CT to evaluate pedicle screw placement in posterior surgery for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis. The subjects comprised 55 patients who underwent posterior correction and fusion, and a total of 810 pedicles were examined in which screw placement had been planned and probing had been performed. Pedicle channel grades were determined by measuring inner pedicle diameter on preoperative CT scans. The grades were defined as grade 1 with an inner diameter of ≥ 4 mm, grade 2 with an inner diameter of ≥ 2 mm and<4 mm, grade 3 with an inner diameter of ≥ 1 mm and<2 mm, and grade 4 for a "cortical channel" with an inner diameter of<1 mm. The failure rate of screw placement was 0.5 % for pedicle channel grade 1, 2.9 % for grade 2, 12.0 % for grade 3, and 31.5 % for grade 4, showing significant differences (p<0.001). For the laterality of curvature, the failure rate was 5.9 % for the convex side, 8.0 % for the neutral vertebra, and 9.0 % for the concave side, showing no significant difference. There was also no significant difference in failure rate between degrees of curvature of<60° (8.2 %) and ≥ 60° (5.6 %). Logistic analysis showed that the pedicle channel grade was a significant risk factor for failure (odds ratio 4.0, p<0.001).

Question: Evaluation of pedicle screw placement by pedicle channel grade in adolescent idiopathic scoliosis: should we challenge narrow pedicles?

The failure rate of screw placement was 31.5 % for a cortical channel with a pedicle inner diameter of<1 mm. Screw placement should be attempted in pedicles with an inner diameter of 1 mm or larger.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate patient satisfaction in outpatient pediatric surgical care and assess differences in scores by race/ethnicity and socioeconomic status (SES). Observational, cross-sectional analysis. Outpatient pediatric surgical specialty clinics at a tertiary academic center. Families of patients received a patient satisfaction survey following their initial care visit in 2012. Mean scores were calculated and compared by child race/ethnicity and insurance type, where insurance with medical assistance (MA) served as a proxy for low SES. Kruskal-Wallis tests were used to compare scores between groups. Surveys were dichotomized to low and high scorers, and multivariate logistic regression was used to calculate the likelihood of high satisfaction. Of 527 surveys completed, 132 (25%) were for children with MA and 143 (27%) were for racial/ethnic minority children. The overall satisfaction score for all specialties was 84.8, which did not significantly differ by SES (P = .98) or minority status (P = .52). The survey item with the highest score in both SES groups was "degree to which provider talked with you using words you could understand" (overall mean 91.94, P = .23). Multivariate analysis showed that patient age, sex, race/ethnicity, insurance type, neighborhood SES, neighborhood diversity, or surgical department did not significantly influence satisfaction.

Question: Does Race/Ethnicity or Socioeconomic Status Influence Patient Satisfaction in Pediatric Surgical Care?

This is the first study to evaluate the relationship between SES and race/ethnicity with patient satisfaction in outpatient pediatric surgical specialty care. In this analysis, no disparities were identified in the patient experience by individual- or community-level factors. Although the survey methodologies may be limited, these findings suggest that provision of care in pediatric surgical specialties can be simultaneously equitable, culturally competent, and family centered.

Answer the question based on the following context: To analyze the utility of intraoperative parathyroid hormone (IOPTH) monitoring for patients with primary hyperparathyroidism who had evidence of single-gland disease on preoperative imaging with modified 4-dimensional computed tomography that was done in conjunction with ultrasonography (Mod 4D-CT/US). Case series with chart review. Tertiary care university medical center. Patients were drawn from consecutive directed parathyroidectomies performed between December 2001 and June 2013 by the senior authors. All patients had primary hyperparathyroidism and underwent a Mod 4D-CT/US study that showed findings on both studies that were consistent with a single adenoma. The modified Miami criteria were used for IOPTH monitoring (parathyroid hormone decrease by>50% and into the normal range). Of 356 patients who underwent parathyroid surgery, 206 had a single gland localized on the Mod 4D-CT and the US studies. IOPTH monitoring was used in 172 cases, of which 169 had adequate clinical follow-up to assess the surgical outcome. Twenty-one patients (12.4%) had IOPTH values that did not meet modified Miami criteria after removal of one gland, of which 7 were found to have multigland disease (4.1%). Three patients (1.8%) had persistent primary hyperparathyroidism despite an IOPTH that met modified Miami criteria.

Question: Is Intraoperative Parathyroid Hormone Monitoring Warranted in Cases of 4D-CT/Ultrasound Localized Single Adenomas?

Although IOPTH monitoring correctly identifies a small percentage of patients with multigland disease, some patients will be subjected to unnecessary neck explorations that can result in difficult intraoperative decisions, such as whether to remove normal or equivocal-sized glands when they are encountered.

Answer the question based on the following context: Mantle cell lymphoma (MCL) is an aggressive disease with genetic heterogeneity and discrete clinical subtypes. MCL is rarely CD10 positive. These cases raise the question whether a subset of MCL may be germinal centre (GC) derived, and have distinct clinicopathological characteristics. A series of nine CD10-positive MCL cases is described herein. The clinicopathological and immunophenotypic features, immunoglobulin somatic hypermutation (SHM) status and gene expression profile (GEP) data are detailed. These features were compared with two independent sets (n=20, each) of CD10-negative MCL cases (controls), which were randomly selected from our institutional registry. GEP showed distinct expression of a GC signature in CD10-positive MCL cases with minimal impact on downstream signalling pathways. There were no significant differences in the clinicopathological features or clinical outcome between our CD10-positive and CD10-negative MCL cases. The frequency of SHM was comparable with established data.

Question: CD10-positive mantle cell lymphoma: biologically distinct entity or an aberrant immunophenotype?

This study provides convincing evidence that CD10 expression is related to a distinct GC signature in MCL cases, but without clinical or biological implications.

Answer the question based on the following context: The standard treatment for locally advanced cervical cancer (LACC) is concomitant chemoradiotherapy. In the majority of patients with LACC after properly executed concomitant chemoradiotherapy local control of the disease is achieved, and consequently distant relapse becomes the main cause of death for these patients. In an attempt to improve the outcome of patients with LACC, we designed a regimen of concomitant chemobrachyradiotherapy with cisplatin and ifosfamide followed by consolidation chemotherapy. Between 1999 and 2012, 118 patients diagnosed with LACC, The International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) stages IB2-IVA, regardless of histology, were treated with concomitant chemobrachyradiotherapy and consolidation chemotherapy at our Institution. Chemotherapy consisted of two cycles of cisplatin and ifosfamide applied concomitantly with two intracavitary low-dose rate brachytherapy applications, and of four cycles of the same drug combination as an adjuvant/consolidation part of the treatment. The primary outcome in this analysis was distant disease-specific survival. A total of 18 patients had documented relapse of cervical cancer, with only three local recurrences observed; 15 patients developed only distant recurrence, and one patient developed both local and distant recurrence. The distant disease-specific survival after a median follow-up of 96 months was 86.4%.

Question: Adjuvant Chemotherapy in Locally Advanced Cervical Cancer After Treatment with Concomitant Chemoradiotherapy--Room for Improvement?

Consolidation or adjuvant chemotherapy that follows concomitant chemoradiotherapy has a potential role in further improving control of the disease, especially distant control of the disease.

Answer the question based on the following context: Fluid-attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) hyperintense vessels (FHVs) have been used to assess leptomeningeal collateral flow in acute ischemic stroke. However, prior FHVs studies showed inconsistent results, which may be ascribable to different magnetic resonance (MR) parameters used. To evaluate whether FHVs could be influenced by varying MR parameters and flow velocities, using a flow phantom. A total of 512 sets of FLAIRs were performed with varying parameters and flow velocities, using a flow phantom. Flow phantom was manufactured with 3.5% agarose solution, an 8-mm inner diameter silicone tube and non-pulsatile pump. Varying MR parameters were repetition time (TR)/inversion time (TI), echo time (TE), flip angle (FA) of refocusing pulse, and periodically rotated overlapping parallel lines with enhanced reconstruction (PROPELLER). The signal intensity of flow were measured and regarded as the degree of FHVs. Simple and multiple linear regression analyses were applied to evaluate the association between the degree of FHVs and varying MR parameters as well as flow velocities. On univariate analysis, PROPELLER technique (R(2 )= 0.448) demonstrated strongest correlation with the degree of FHV, followed by flow velocities (R(2 )= 0.204), FA (R(2 )= 0.126), and TE (R(2 )= 0.031), whereas TR/TI showed no significant correlations. On multivariate analysis, TE, FA, PROPELLER technique, and flow velocities were independent factors influencing the degree of FHVs (<0.001).

Question: Can FLAIR hyperintense vessel (FHV) signs be influenced by varying MR parameters and flow velocities?

Flow velocities, FA of refocusing pulse, TE, and PROPELLER technique significantly affected the degree of FHVs. Optimized MR parameters should be used consistently in future studies, which may provide more reliable results.

Answer the question based on the following context: Social deprivation impacts on healthcare outcomes but is not included in the majority of cardiac surgery risk prediction models. The objective was to investigate geographical variations in social deprivation of patients undergoing cardiac surgery and identify whether social deprivation is an independent predictor of outcomes. National Adult Cardiac Surgery Audit data for coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), or valve surgery performed in England between April 2003 and March 2013, were analysed. Base hospitals in England were divided into geographical regions. Social deprivation was measured by quintile groups of the index of multiple deprivation (IMD) score with the first quintile group (Q1) being the least, and the last quintile group (Q5) the most deprived group. In-hospital mortality and midterm survival were analysed using mixed effects logistic, and stratified Cox proportional hazards regression models respectively. 240,221 operations were analysed. There was substantial regional variation in social deprivation with the proportion of patients in IMD Q5 ranging from 34.5% in the North East to 6.5% in the East of England. Following adjustment for preoperative risk factors, patients undergoing all cardiac surgery in IMD Q5 were found to have an increased risk of in-hospital mortality relative to IMD Q1 (OR=1.13; 95%CI 1.03 to 1.24), as were patients undergoing isolated CABG (OR=1.19; 95%CI 1.03 to 1.37). For midterm survival, patients in IMD Q5 had an increased hazard in all groups (HRs ranged between 1.10 (valve+CABG) and 1.26 (isolated CABG)). For isolated CABG, the median postoperative length of stay was 6 and 7 days, respectively, for IMD Q1-Q4 and Q5.

Question: Is social deprivation an independent predictor of outcomes following cardiac surgery?

Significant regional variation exists in the social deprivation of patients undergoing cardiac surgery in England. Social deprivation is associated with an increased risk of in-hospital mortality and reduced midterm survival. These findings have implications for health service provision, risk prediction models and analyses of surgical outcomes.

Answer the question based on the following context: Understanding the meaning of one's lived experiences improves one's understanding of what it means to be human, in association with the social, cultural and historical context in which being a human occurs. The authors in this study describe the lived experiences of residents within a chronic care facility including the practitioner and family perspectives. A qualitative approach was employed with a single-site, descriptive, instrumental case study design. Purposive sampling was utilised to select the chronic facility. Multiple sources of evidence included narratives, semi-structured interviews with staff, residents and family members, and activity profiles of the residents augmented by an ergonomic evaluation of the facility. Content analysis using within-case analysis was implemented. The greatest impact on the quality of the resident's lived experiences emanates from the physical, organisational and social environments in which they reside. Limited resources, poor staff attitudes and routines that are enforced both on the staff of the facility and the residents appear to reduce optimal functioning within the facility. Furthermore the residents' intrinsic motivation, presence of enforced idleness, learned helplessness and institutionalisation is often intensified and becomes characteristic of the residents lived experiences. The lived experiences of the residents are described according to quality of life indicators that were identified during the study and supported by literature. These include the influence of the physical, social and organizational environments on the residents' functional status, which comprises physical well-being and emotional well-being and engagement in meaningful occupations including social interaction and relationships with other individuals.

Question: Life within chronic care: is this a service or sentence?

Findings of this study may be valuable in understanding and facilitating a positive change in service delivery within chronic care centres.

Answer the question based on the following context: Anatomic measures of injury burden provide key information for studies of prehospital and in-hospital trauma care. The military version of the Abbreviated Injury Scale [AIS(M)] is used to score injuries in deployed military hospitals. Estimates of total trauma burden are derived from this. These scores are used for categorization of patients, assessment of care quality, and research studies. Scoring is normally performed retrospectively from chart review. We compared data recorded in the UK Joint Theatre Trauma Registry (JTTR) and scores calculated independently at the time of surgery by the operating surgeons to assess the concordance between surgeons and trauma nurse coordinators in assigning injury severity scores. Trauma casualties treated at a deployed Role 3 hospital were assigned AIS(M) scores by surgeons between 24 September 2012 and 16 October 2012. JTTR records from the same period were retrieved. The AIS(M), Injury Severity Score (ISS), and New Injury Severity Score (NISS) were compared between datasets. Among 32 matched casualties, 214 injuries were recorded in the JTTR, whereas surgeons noted 212. Percentage agreement for number of injuries was 19%. Surgeons scored 75 injuries as "serious" or greater compared with 68 in the JTTR. Percentage agreement for the maximum AIS(M), ISS, and NISS assigned to cases was 66%, 34%, and 28%, respectively, although the distributions of scores were not statistically different (median ISS: surgeons: 20 [interquartile range (IQR), 9-28] versus JTTR: 17.5 [IQR, 9-31.5], p = .7; median NISS: surgeons: 27 [IQR, 12-42] versus JTTR: 25.5 [IQR, 11.5-41], p = .7).

Question: Interobserver Variability in Injury Severity Scoring After Combat Trauma: Different Perspectives, Different Values?

There are discrepancies in the recording of AIS(M) between surgeons directly involved in the care of trauma casualties and trauma nurse coordinators working by retrospective chart review. Increased accuracy might be achieved by actively collaborating in this process.

Answer the question based on the following context: Cystic fibrosis (CF) patients are predisposed to infection and colonization with different microbes. Some cause deterioration of lung functions, while others are colonizers without clear pathogenic effects. Our aim was to understand the effects of Nocardia species in sputum cultures on the course of lung disease in CF patients. A retrospective study analyzing the impact of positive Nocardia spp. in sputum of 19 CF patients over a period of 10 years, comparing them with similar status patients without Nocardia growth. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are used as indicators of lung disease severity and decline rate in functions per year is calculated. No significant difference in PFTs of CF patients with positive Nocardia in sputum was found in different sub-groups according to number of episodes of growth, background variables, or treatment plans. The yearly decline in PFTs was similar to that recognized in CF patients. The control group patients showed similar background data. However, a small difference was found in the rate of decline of their PFTs, which implies a possibly slower rate of progression of lung disease.

Question: Nocardia Colonization: A Risk Factor for Lung Deterioration in Cystic Fibrosis Patients?

The prognosis of lung disease in CF patients colonized with Nocardia does not seem to differ based on the persistence of growth on cultures, different treatment plans or risk factors. Apparently, Nocardia does not cause a deterioration of lung functions with time. However, it may show a trend to faster decline in PFTs compared to similar status CF patients without isolation of this microorganism in their sputum.

Answer the question based on the following context: Quality report cards have been shown to be effective in influencing patients' referrals and promoting quality improvement in some instances and not others. In this study, we investigate one of the mechanisms that may detract from their effectiveness: voluntary versus mandatory participation of nursing homes in public quality reporting. To answer 2 questions: (1) Were the nursing homes choosing not to participate low-quality performers relative to those who chose to participate? (2) Once participation became mandatory, did those that did not voluntarily participate initially, improve more than those that participated voluntarily? Massachusetts published the Massachusetts Satisfaction Survey report card for nursing homes for the years 2005, 2007, and 2009. Nursing homes' participation was voluntary in 2005 and mandatory in 2007 and 2009. We performed a retrospective statistical analysis of the relationship between nursing homes' decision to participate in quality reporting and 12 quality outcomes: deficiency citations, staffing, and 8 survey domains. A total of 424 Massachusetts nursing homes. Sixty-seven percent of nursing homes participated in reporting voluntarily. Volunteer nursing homes had better quality for all measures (significant at the 0.05 level or trending toward significance at the 0.10 level for all but 2). Once reporting became mandatory, nonvolunteers improved more than volunteers in all but 2 staffing measures (trending toward significance at the 0.10 level in 5).

Question: Does mandating nursing home participation in quality reporting make a difference?

Report cards are more effective if nursing homes' participation is mandated. Nonmandatory reporting systems, as those implemented by some states and professional associations, lead to missed opportunities for quality improvements.

Answer the question based on the following context: Low cancer awareness may contribute to delayed diagnosis and poor cancer survival. We aimed to quantify socio-demographic differences in cancer symptom awareness and barriers to symptomatic presentation in the English population. Using a uniquely large data set (n=49 270), we examined the association of cancer symptom awareness and barriers to presentation with age, gender, marital status and socio-economic position (SEP), using logistic regression models to control for confounders. The youngest and oldest, the single and participants with the lowest SEP recognised the fewest cancer symptoms, and reported most barriers to presentation. Recognition of nine common cancer symptoms was significantly lower, and embarrassment, fear and difficulties in arranging transport to the doctor's surgery were significantly more common in participants living in the most deprived areas than in the most affluent areas. Women were significantly more likely than men to both recognise common cancer symptoms and to report barriers. Women were much more likely compared with men to report that fear would put them off from going to the doctor.

Question: Cancer symptom awareness and barriers to symptomatic presentation in England--are we clear on cancer?

Large and robust socio-demographic differences in recognition of some cancer symptoms, and perception of some barriers to presentation, highlight the need for targeted campaigns to encourage early presentation and improve cancer outcomes.

Answer the question based on the following context: Both Moyamoya disease (MMD) and intracranial atherosclerotic stenosis (ICAS) are more prevalent in Asians than in Westerners. We hypothesized that a substantial proportion of patients with adult-onset MMD were misclassified as having ICAS, which may in part explain the high prevalence of intracranial atherosclerotic stroke in Asians. We analyzed 352 consecutive patients with ischemic events within the MCA distribution and relevant intracranial arterial stenosis, but no demonstrable carotid or cardiac embolism sources. Conventional angiography was performed in 249 (70.7%) patients, and the remains underwent MRA. The occurrence of the c.14429G>A (p.Arg4810Lys) variant in ring finger protein 213 (RNF213) was analyzed. This gene was recently identified as a susceptibility gene for MMD in East Asians. The p.Arg4810Lys variant was observed in half of patients with intracranial stenosis (176 of 352, 50.0%), in no healthy control subjects (n = 51), and in 3.2% of stroke control subjects (4 of 124 patients with other etiologies). The presence of basal collaterals, bilateral involvement on angiography, and absence of diabetes were independently associated with the presence of the RNF213 variant. Among 131 patients who met all three diagnostic criteria and were diagnosed with MMD, three-fourths (75.6%) had this variant. However, a significant proportion of patients who met two criteria (57.7%), one criterion (28.6%), or no criteria (20.0%) also had this variant. Some of them developed typical angiographic findings of MMD on follow-up angiography.

Question: Adult Moyamoya Disease: A Burden of Intracranial Stenosis in East Asians?

Careful consideration of MMD is needed when diagnosing ICAS because differential therapeutic strategies are required for these diseases and due to the limitations of the current diagnostic criteria for MMD.

Answer the question based on the following context: Left ventricular non-compaction (LVNC) is a rare cardiac disorder characterized by prominent trabeculae and deep recesses of the ventricular myocardium. Patients with LVNC may develop severe congestive heart failure refractory to medical therapy. However, heart transplantation is strongly limited due to donor organ shortage. Thus mechanical circulatory support by left ventricular assist devices (LVADs) is a promising alternative. Nevertheless, hypertrabeculation and proarrhythmogenic potential in LVNC might represent important hurdles for success of LVAD therapy in these patients. We retrospectively analyzed the data of a total of 5 patients (3 HVAD, Heartware®; 2 HeartMate II, Thoratec®) with LVNC who underwent LVAD implantation in our institution between 2010 and 2014. Mean follow-up time was 86.5weeks. 30-day survival was 100% without major intrahospital complications. During follow-up, 3 patients developed pump thrombosis requiring pump replacement. Arrhythmias were not detected during follow-up as assessed by ICD interrogation.

Question: First series of mechanical circulatory support in non-compaction cardiomyopathy: Is LVAD implantation a safe alternative?

LVAD implantation in LVNC can be performed with low intrahospital complication rates. However, we observed a high incidence of pump thrombosis during follow-up, possibly related to thromboembolic predisposition by the underlying LVNC. Therefore, careful management of anticoagulation appears to be critical in these patients.

Answer the question based on the following context: To assess prenatal counseling practices of obstetrics providers related to postpartum pelvic floor dysfunction at centers with integrated urogynecology services. A cross-sectional survey was distributed to obstetrical providers through urogynecology colleagues. The survey included questions about level of training as well as counseling practices related to common postpartum pelvic floor symptoms. All statistical tests were two-sided, and p values<0.05 were considered statistically significant. A total of 192 surveys were received; 19 respondents did not perform their own prenatal counseling and were excluded. Among the remaining 173 respondents, 94 (56.3%) of those who answered the question reported never discussing postpartum urinary incontinence, and 73.7% reported never discussing postpartum fecal incontinence during prenatal counseling. Obstetrics and gynecology residents were significantly less likely than attending physicians to report discussing various pelvic floor dysfunction topics in prenatal counseling. Among those who reported not counseling women regarding pelvic floor dysfunction, the most common reason cited was lack of time (39.9%) followed by lack of sufficient information (30.1%).

Question: Do Obstetrical Providers, Counsel Women About Postpartum Pelvic Floor Dysfunction?

Prenatal counseling of pelvic floor dysfunction risk is lacking at all levels of obstetrical training. Limitations of time and information are the obstacles most often cited by providers.

Answer the question based on the following context: To measure the effects of real-time visualisation during urethrocystoscopy on pain in patients who underwent ambulatory urethrocystoscopy. An observational study was designed. From June 2012 to June 2013 patients who had ambulatory urethrocystoscopy participated in the study. In order to measure pain perception we used a numeric rating scale (NRS) 0 to 10. Additional data was collected including gender, reason for intervention, use of a rigid or a flexible instrument and whether the patient had had urethrocystoscopy before. 185 patients were evaluated. 125 patients preferred to watch their urethrocystoscopy on a real-time video screen, 60 patients did not. There was no statistically relevant difference in pain perception between those patients who watched their urethrocystoscopy on a real-time video screen and those who did not (p = 0.063). However, men who were allowed to watch their flexible urethrocystoscopy experienced significantly less pain, than those who did not (p = 0.007). No such effects could be measured for rigid urethrocystoscopy (p = 0.317). Furthermore, women experienced significantly higher levels of pain during the urethrocystoscopy than men (p = 0.032).

Question: Does visualisation during urethrocystoscopy provide pain relief?

Visualisation during urethrocystoscopy procedures in general does not significantly decrease pain in patients. Nevertheless, men who undergo flexible urethrocystoscopy should be offered to watch their procedure in real-time on a video screen. To make urethrocystoscopy less painful for both genders, especially for women, should be subject to further research.

Answer the question based on the following context: Arthralgia is a common toxicity among women taking aromatase inhibitors (AIs) and can lead to premature discontinuation of therapy. We evaluated the association between arthralgia, co-morbid fatigue and/or insomnia, and inflammatory biomarkers among women taking AIs. Women taking AIs for early-stage breast cancer completed a modified version of the Brief Pain Inventory, the Brief Fatigue Inventory, and the Insomnia Severity Index and provided blood samples for simultaneous assessment of 34 inflammatory biomarkers with a Luminex kit. Two-sided t tests were used to compare inflammatory biomarker concentrations for patients with or without moderate to severe arthralgia. Multivariate linear regression analyses were performed to evaluate the relationship between comorbid arthralgia, fatigue, and insomnia with identified biomarker concentrations. Among 203 participants, the severity of arthralgia, fatigue, and insomnia were significantly correlated with each other (p<0.001 for all comparisons). After controlling for race, chemotherapy history, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug use, age, and body mass index, the coexistence of arthralgia, fatigue, and insomnia was associated with elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) (β = 93.1; 95 % confidence interval (CI): 25.1-161.1; p = 0.008), eotaxin (β = 79.9; 95 % CI: 32.5-127.2; p = 0.001), monocyte chemoattractant protein (MCP)-1 (β = 151.2; 95 % CI: 32.7-269.8; p = 0.013), and vitamin D-binding protein (VDBP) (β = 19,422; 95 % CI: 5500.5-33,344; p = 0.006).

Question: Arthralgia among women taking aromatase inhibitors: is there a shared inflammatory mechanism with co-morbid fatigue and insomnia?

Among women taking AIs, the coexistence of arthralgia, fatigue, and insomnia was associated with increased levels of inflammatory biomarkers (elevated CRP, eotaxin, MCP-1, and VDBP). These findings suggest a possible shared inflammatory mechanism underlying these common symptoms.

Answer the question based on the following context: Fifty-eight patients undergoing 3 T phased-array coil magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) including diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI; maximal b-value 1000 s/mm(2)) before prostatectomy were included. Two radiologists independently evaluated the images, unaware of the histopathology findings. Regions of interest (ROIs) were drawn within areas showing visually low ADC within the peripheral zone (PZ) and transition zone (TZ) bilaterally. ROIs were also placed within regions in both lobes not suspicious for tumour, allowing computation of normalised ADC (nADC) ratios between suspicious and non-suspicious regions. The diagnostic performance of ADC and nADC were compared. For PZ tumour detection, ADC achieved significantly higher area under the receiver operating characteristic curve (AUC; p=0.026) and specificity (p=0.021) than nADC for reader 1, and significantly higher AUC (p=0.025) than nADC for reader 2. For TZ tumour detection, nADC achieved significantly higher specificity (p=0.003) and accuracy (p=0.004) than ADC for reader 2. For PZ Gleason score>3+3 tumour detection, ADC achieved significantly higher AUC (p=0.003) and specificity (p=0.005) than nADC for reader 1, and significantly higher AUC (p=0.023) than nADC for reader 2. For TZ Gleason score>3+3 tumour detection, ADC achieved significantly higher specificity (p=0.019) than nADC for reader 1.

Question: Does normalisation improve the diagnostic performance of apparent diffusion coefficient values for prostate cancer assessment?

In contrast to prior studies performing unblinded evaluations, ADC was observed to outperform nADC overall for two independent observers blinded to the histopathology findings. Therefore, although strategies to improve the utility of ADC measurements in prostate cancer assessment merit continued investigation, caution is warranted when applying normalisation to improve diagnostic performance in clinical practice.

Answer the question based on the following context: Ceramic-on-ceramic bearing couples are theoretically attractive in total hip arthroplasty (THA) because of low wear, but concerns regarding ceramic fracture and squeaking have arisen. Improved material properties of newer alumina matrix composite (AMC) materials, known as Delta ceramics, may reduce these risks. In addition, the use of thinner liners and larger femoral heads may be helpful clinically to lower the rate of dislocation. However, limited short-term clinical results are available and intermediate-term effects are unclear.QUESTIONS/ (1) What is the frequency of bearing-related complications (dissociation, fracture, and noise) with ceramic-on-ceramic AMC bearings in cementless THA? (2) What other complications arose in patients treated with these bearings? (3) What are the Harris hip scores (HHS) and survivorship free from reoperation and revision at a minimum of 5 years after cementless THA performed with AMC bearings? Over a 9-month period in 2009, one surgeon performed 125 THAs, of which 100 (80% of the total) were performed with cementless, AMC bearings. During the period in question, the exclusion criteria for this implant were primary THAs with severe acetabular or femoral bone defect and revision THAs. Of these, 94 hips (95%) in 91 patients were available for analysis at a minimum of 5 years (range, 5-6 years), because five patients (six hips) had died. Mean age at the time of arthroplasty was 55 ± 14 years. Prostheses with an identical design and Biolox(®) Delta ceramics were used in all patients. Noise was classified into squeaking, clicking, grinding, and popping. Ceramic fracture, dislocation, and any other complications associated with the use of AMC ceramics were also investigated. Clinical evaluation included the modified HHS preoperatively and at each followup. Survivorship free from reoperation and revision was calculated using the Kaplan-Meier method. Of 91 patients, four developed bearing-related complications, including one with liner dissociation despite initial square seating and three with clicking. No patients had ceramic fractures. A single event of perioperative dislocation occurred in one patient and postoperative periprosthetic fracture occurred in two hips. Mean HHS improved from 56 to 93 points at the final followup (p<0.001). Survivorship at 5 years free from reoperation and revision was 96.8% and 97.9%, respectively.

Question: Do alumina matrix composite bearings decrease hip noises and bearing fractures at a minimum of 5 years after THA?

Improved material properties combined with the possible use of larger diameter heads make AMC ceramics a promising alternative bearing option with seemingly comparable clinical outcomes reported by others with conventional ceramic bearings. Despite these encouraging results, however, meticulous technical precautions such as square seating and proper impaction in particular should be taken during liner insertion, because we did observe one liner dissociation and several patients with hip noises.

Answer the question based on the following context: In its guidelines on the use of portable monitors to diagnose obstructive sleep apnoea, the American Academy of Sleep Medicine endorses home polygraphy with type III devices recording at a minimum airflow the respiratory effort and pulse oximetry, but advises against simple pulse oximetry. However, oximetry is widely available and simple to use in the home. This study was designed to compare the ability of the oxygen desaturation index (ODI) based on oximetry alone with a stand-alone pulse oximeter (SPO) and from the oximetry channel of the ApneaLink Plus (ALP), with the respiratory disturbance index (RDI) based on four channels from the ALP to predict the apnoea-hypopnoea index (AHI) from laboratory polysomnography. Cross-sectional diagnostic accuracy study. Sleep medicine practice of a multispecialty clinic. Patients referred for laboratory polysomnography with suspected sleep apnoea. We enrolled 135 participants with 123 attempting the home sleep testing and 73 having at least 4 hours of satisfactory data from SPO and ALP. Participants had home testing performed simultaneously with both a SPO and an ALP. The 2 oximeter probes were worn on different fingers of the same hand. The ODI for the SPO was calculated using Profox software (ODI(SOX)). For the ALP, RDI and ODI were calculated using both technician scoring (RDI(MAN) and ODI(MAN)) and the ALP computer scoring (RDI(RAW) and ODI(RAW)). The receiver-operator characteristic areas under the curve for AHI ≥ 5 were RDI(MAN) 0.88 (95% confidence limits 0.81-0.96), RDI(RAW) 0.86 (0.76-0.94), ODI(MAN) 0.86 (0.77-0.95), ODI(RAW) 0.84 (0.75-0.93) and ODI(SOX) 0.83 (0.73-0.93).

Question: Type III home sleep testing versus pulse oximetry: is the respiratory disturbance index better than the oxygen desaturation index to predict the apnoea-hypopnoea index measured during laboratory polysomnography?

We conclude that the RDI and the ODI, measured at home on the same night, give similar predictions of the laboratory AHI, measured on a different night. The differences between the two methods are small compared with the reported night-to-night variation of the AHI.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of this study was to investigate how early career psychiatrists in 2014 valued the leadership skill education in their training to become psychiatrists. All psychiatrists who gained Fellowship since 2009 after training in New Zealand or Australia were invited to take part in a survey. Respondents considered themselves not adequately prepared for the leadership, management and administrative tasks and roles they have as psychiatrists, with preparedness for management tasks scoring the lowest. They valued as most useful to have opportunity to practice with a leadership role, to be able to observe 'leaders at work', to have a supervisor with special interests and skills in leadership and management and to have a formal teaching program on leadership and management. They advised teaching to be given throughout the entire 5 years of the training program by experienced leaders.

Question: Are psychiatrists trained to be leaders in mental health?

Leadership skills training in the education of psychiatrists should contain both practical experience with leadership and management roles and formal teaching sessions on leadership and management skills development. Suggestions for improvement of the leadership and management skills education in the training of psychiatrists have been formulated.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of this study was to assess diagnostic values of insulin tolerance test (ITT), glucagon stimulation test (GST), and insulin like growth factor-I (IGF-I) level, to find optimal GH cut-off values for GST, and to evaluate efficiencies of patient age, gender, body-mass index (BMI), and additional pituitary hormone deficiencies (PHDs) in the diagnosis of growth hormone deficiency (GHD). This retrospective study involved 216 patients with a pituitary disease and 26 healthy controls. Age, gender, BMI, medical histories, and hormonal data including baseline and stimulated hormone values were evaluated. Three cut-off values for peak GH responses to stimulation tests were evaluated: (a) 3.00 µg/L on ITT, (b) 3.00 µg/L on GST, and (c) 1.07 µg/L on GST. According to the ITT, GST with 3.00 µg/L cut-off, and GST with 1.07 µg/L cut-off, GHD was present in 86.1, 74.5, and 54.2 % patients, respectively. Patient age, BMI, and number of PHDs, but not gender, were found to be correlated with IGF-I and peak GH concentrations. All patients with an IGF-I concentration ≤95 ng/ml or ≥3 PHD had GHD. None of the patients with adequate GH response to the GST with 1.07 µg/L cut-off, but blunted responses to ITT and GST with 3.00 µg/L cut-off, had ≥3 PHDs. 12 out of 26 (46.2 %) healthy subjects failed the GST with 3.00 µg/L cut-off, but not with 1.07 µg/L cut-off.

Question: Can a glucagon stimulation test characterized by lower GH cut-off value be used for the diagnosis of growth hormone deficiency in adults?

Patient age, IGF-I, BMI, and number of PHDs are efficient factors associated with the diagnosis of GHD. A 4 h GST with a diagnostic GH threshold of 1.07 µg/L seems to be a good diagnostic method for GHD.

Answer the question based on the following context: Due to the high number of total hip arthroplasties (THA) revised due to instability, the use of large femoral heads to reduce instability is justifiable. It is critical to determine whether or not large femoral heads used in conjunction with thin polyethylene liners lead to increased wear rates, which can lead to osteolysis. Therefore, by using validated wear-analysis software, we evaluated linear wear rates in a consecutive cohort of patients who underwent primary THA with thin polyethylene liners. All patients were selected from a consecutive, prospectively collected database of 241 THAs performed at a single institution by two fellowship-trained joint-reconstruction surgeons between July 2007 and June 2011. These patients were 1:1 matched to a cohort of patients who had conventional-thickness polyethylene liners. No significant differences were observed between linear wear rates of thin or conventional-thickness liners. The Kaplan-Meier survivorship for both cohorts was 100 %, and no cases of polyethylene fracture were observed in either cohort.

Question: Is the use of thin, highly cross-linked polyethylene liners safe in total hip arthroplasty?

Our results suggest that according to a mean follow-up of 4 years, the use of thin liners in THA is promising. Longer follow-up is required to assess whether these outcomes are observed later.

Answer the question based on the following context: This study investigates whether the type, nature or amount of polysubstance use can explain the increased risk of non-fatal overdose among people who inject drugs with severe psychological distress. Data came from three years (2011-2013) of the Illicit Drug Reporting System (IDRS), an annual sentinel sample of injecting drug users across Australia (n=2673). Structural Equation Modelling (SEM) was used on 14 drug types to construct five latent factors, each representing a type of polysubstance use. Tests of measurement invariance were carried out to determine if polysubstance use profiles differed between those with and without severe psychological distress. Next, we regressed non-fatal overdose on the polysubstance use factors with differences in the relationships tested between groups. Among those with severe psychological distress a polysubstance use profile characterised by heroin, oxycodone, crystal methamphetamine and cocaine use was associated with greater risk of non-fatal overdose. Among those without severe psychological distress, two polysubstance use profiles, largely characterised by opioid substitution therapies and prescription drugs, were protective against non-fatal overdose.

Question: Can differences in the type, nature or amount of polysubstance use explain the increased risk of non-fatal overdose among psychologically distressed people who inject drugs?

The types of polysubstance use profiles did not differ between people who inject drugs with and without severe psychological distress. However, the nature of use of one particular polysubstance profile placed the former group at a strongly increased risk of non-fatal overdose, while the nature of polysubstance use involving opioid substitution therapies was protective only among the latter group. The findings identify polysubstance use profiles of importance to drug-related harms among individuals with psychological problems.

Answer the question based on the following context: Although recent evidence suggests worse outcomes for patients admitted to the hospital on a weekend, the impact of weekend discharge is less understood. Utilizing the 2012 California Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development database, the impact of weekend discharge on 30-day hospital readmission rates for patients admitted with acute myocardial infarction (AMI), congestive heart failure (CHF), or pneumonia (PNA) was investigated. Out of 266,519 patients, 60,097 (22.5%) were discharged on a weekend. Unadjusted 30-day hospital readmission rates were similar between weekend and weekday discharges (AMI: 21.9% vs 21.9%; CHF: 15.4% vs 16.0%; PNA: 12.1% vs 12.4%). Patients discharged on a weekday had a longer length of stay and were more often discharged to a skilled nursing facility. However, in multivariable logistic regression models, weekend discharge was not associated with readmission (AMI: odds ratio [OR]1.02 [95% CI: 0.98-1.06]; CHF: OR 0.99 [95% CI: 0.94-1.03]; PNA: OR 1.02 (95% CI: 0.98-1.07)).

Question: Is weekend discharge associated with hospital readmission?

Among patients in California with AMI, CHF, and PNA, discharge on a weekend was not associated with an increased hospital readmission rate.

Answer the question based on the following context: The therapeutic efficacy of red blood cell (RBC) transfusions in patients with autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) is highly debated because of speculations on the increased risk of transfusion reactions; yet it is a suggested adjuvant therapy in anemic patients with life-threatening hypoxemia. In this study, we evaluated the safety and efficacy of RBC transfusions in AIHA patients. Daily changes in hemoglobin, total bilirubin, and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) were assessed in 161 AIHA patients without bleeding history who were transfused once with 1-5 units of the least-incompatible RBCs and monitored over a seven-day period. Post-transfusion patients positive for alloantibodies only or those without RBC-specific antibodies were considered as control groups (N=100 for both groups). The three groups revealed similar increases in hemoglobin of 1.40-1.70 g/dL (autoantibodies), 1.20-1.60 g/dL (alloantibodies only), and 1.40-1.55 g/dL (no antibodies) for seven days following transfusion of 10 mL RBCs/kg. During follow-up, no significant changes in total bilirubin or LDH levels were detected in the AIHA group compared with controls. Influences due to autoantibody type, direct antiglobulin test (DAT) specificity and strength, and steroid therapy status on transfusion reactions were not evident in AIHA patients. In addition, changes in hemoglobin levels were significantly higher (P<0.001) in severe anemia (<5 g/dL) than in other patients.

Question: Red Blood Cell Transfusion in Patients With Autoantibodies: Is It Effective and Safe Without Increasing Hemolysis Risk?

Transfusion of the least-incompatible RBCs in AIHA patients is effective and safe without any associated increase in hemolysis risk when compared with post-transfusion patients positive for alloantibodies or those lacking RBC-specific antibodies.

Answer the question based on the following context: Despite its medical utility, continuous cardiac output (CO) monitoring remains a practical challenge on the battlefield and in the prehospital environment. Measuring a CO surrogate, perhaps heart-rate complexity (HRC), might be a viable solution when no direct monitoring of CO is available. Changes in HRC observed before and during hemorrhagic shock may be able to track the simultaneous changes in CO. The goal of this study was to test whether HRC is a surrogate measure of CO before, during, and after hemorrhage in a conscious sheep model of multiple hemorrhages and resuscitation. HRC was derived from 100-Hz electrocardiograms of 10 sheep records, 3 hours to 4 hours long, using the method of sample entropy. A real-time detection algorithm was used to detect the R-R interval sequences for HRC calculations. All records contained 100-Hz recordings of pulmonary arterial blood flow using Doppler transit time (criterion standard CO). Gold CO and estimated HRC values were analyzed using overlaid time-synchronized waveform plots as well as Bland-Altman, regression, and four-quadrant analysis. Baseline CO varied from 3.0 L/min to 5.4 L/min, while posthemorrhage CO varied from 1.0 L/min to 1.8 L/min. Importantly, overlaid plots demonstrated an overall high similarity between CO and HRC waveforms before and during hemorrhage, but not during resuscitation. When the electrocardiogram quality was high, the correlation between CO and HRC within the first 45 minutes was greater than 0.75 (p<0.0001; maximum r, 0.972). Scatter plots also depicted high linearity before and during hemorrhage. Four-quadrant analysis showed that instantaneous changes between consecutive beat-to-beat HRC measurements followed CO measurements (100% concordance rate), while 5-minute time points yielded a 76.19% concordance rate.

Question: Is heart-rate complexity a surrogate measure of cardiac output before, during, and after hemorrhage in a conscious sheep model of multiple hemorrhages and resuscitation?

HRC has potential utility as a noninvasive tool for assessing the response of CO to life-threatening injuries such as hemorrhagic shock. However, further investigation and other animal models or human studies are needed.

Answer the question based on the following context: The effects of mild traumatic brain injury (mTBI) have received significant attention since the beginning of the conflicts in Afghanistan and Iraq. Surprisingly, little is known about the temporal nature of neurocognitive impairment, mTBI, and posttraumatic stress (PTS) symptoms following combat-related mTBI. It is also unclear as to the role that blast exposure history has on mTBI and PTS impairments and symptoms. The purposes of this study were to examine prospectively the effects of mTBI on neurocognitive performance as well as mTBI and PTS symptoms among US Army Special Operations Command personnel and to study the influence of history of blast mTBI on these effects. Eighty US Army Special Operations Command personnel with (n = 19) and without (n = 61) a history of blast-related mTBI completed the military version of the Immediate Post-concussion Assessment Cognitive Test (ImPACT), Post Concussion Symptom Scale (PCSS), and the PTSD Checklist (PCL) at baseline as well as 1 day to 7 days and 8 days to 20 days following a combat-related mTBI. Results indicated that verbal memory (p = 0.002) and processing speed (p = 0.003) scores were significantly lower and mTBI symptoms (p = 0.001) were significantly higher at 1 day to 7 days after injury compared with both baseline and 8 days to 20 days after injury. PTS remained stable across the three periods. Participants with a history of blast mTBI demonstrated lower verbal memory at 1 day to 7 days after mTBI compared with participants without a history of blast mTBI (p = 0.02).

Question: The effects of combat-related mild traumatic brain injury (mTBI): Does blast mTBI history matter?

Decreases in neurocognitive performance and increased mTBI symptoms are evident in the first 1 day to 7 days following combat-related mTBI, and a history of blast-related mTBI may influence these effects.

Answer the question based on the following context: The objective of this study is to assess the value for money of introducing pneumococcal conjugate vaccines as part of the immunization program in a lower-middle income country, the Philippines, which is not eligible for GAVI support and lower vaccine prices. It also includes the newest clinical evidence evaluating the efficacy of PCV10, which is lacking in other previous studies. A cost-utility analysis was conducted. A Markov simulation model was constructed to examine the costs and consequences of PCV10 and PCV13 against the current scenario of no PCV vaccination for a lifetime horizon. A health system perspective was employed to explore different funding schemes, which include universal or partial vaccination coverage subsidized by the government. Results were presented as incremental cost-effectiveness ratios (ICERs) in Philippine peso (Php) per QALY gained (1 USD = 44.20 Php). Probabilistic sensitivity analysis was performed to determine the impact of parameter uncertainty. With universal vaccination at a cost per dose of Php 624 for PCV10 and Php 700 for PCV13, both PCVs are cost-effective compared to no vaccination given the ceiling threshold of Php 120,000 per QALY gained, yielding ICERs of Php 68,182 and Php 54,510 for PCV10 and PCV13, respectively. Partial vaccination of 25% of the birth cohort resulted in significantly higher ICER values (Php 112,640 for PCV10 and Php 84,654 for PCV13) due to loss of herd protection. The budget impact analysis reveals that universal vaccination would cost Php 3.87 billion to 4.34 billion per annual, or 1.6 to 1.8 times the budget of the current national vaccination program.

Question: Do Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines Represent Good Value for Money in a Lower-Middle Income Country?

The inclusion of PCV in the national immunization program is recommended. PCV13 achieved better value for money compared to PCV10. However, the affordability and sustainability of PCV implementation over the long-term should be considered by decision makers.

Answer the question based on the following context: Effective fetal growth requires adequate maternal nutrition coupled to active transport of nutrients across the placenta, which, in turn requires ATP. Epidemiological and experimental evidence has shown that impaired maternal nutrition in utero results in an adverse postnatal phenotype for the offspring. Placental mitochondrial function might link maternal food intake to fetal growth since impaired placental ATP production, in response to poor maternal nutrition, could be a pathway linking maternal food intake to reduced fetal growth. We assessed the effects of maternal diet on placental water content, ATP levels and mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) content in mice at embryonic (E) day 18 (E18). Females maintained on either low- (LPD) or normal- (NPD) protein diets were mated with NPD males. Fetal dry weight and placental efficiency (embryo/placental fresh weight) were positively correlated (r = 0.53, P = 0.0001). Individual placental dry weight was reduced by LPD (P = 0.003), as was the expression of amino acid transporter Slc38a2 and of growth factor Igf2. Placental water content, which is regulated by active transport of solutes, was increased by LPD (P = 0.0001). However, placental ATP content was also increased (P = 0.03). To investigate the possibility of an underlying mitochondrial stress response, we studied cultured human trophoblast cells (BeWos). High throughput imaging showed that amino acid starvation induces changes in mitochondrial morphology that suggest stress-induced mitochondrial hyperfusion. This is a defensive response, believed to increase mitochondrial efficiency, that could underlie the increase in ATP observed in placenta.

Question: Is Placental Mitochondrial Function a Regulator that Matches Fetal and Placental Growth to Maternal Nutrient Intake in the Mouse?

These findings reinforce the pathophysiological links between maternal diet and conceptus mitochondria, potentially contributing to metabolic programming. The quiet embryo hypothesis proposes that pre-implantation embryo survival is best served by a relatively low level of metabolism. This may extend to post-implantation trophoblast responses to nutrition.

Answer the question based on the following context: Behavioral addictions and bipolar disorders have a certain probability of co-occurrence. While the presence of a manic episode has been defined as an exclusion criterion for gambling disorder, no such exclusion has been formulated for Internet addiction. A clinical sample of 368 treatment seekers presenting with excessive to addictive Internet use was screened for bipolar spectrum disorders using the Mood Disorder Questionnaire. Psychopathology was assessed by the Symptom Checklist 90R and a clinical interview was administered to screen for comorbid disorders. Comorbid bipolar disorders were more frequent in patients meeting criteria for Internet addiction (30.9%) than among the excessive users (5.6%). This subgroup showed heightened psychopathological symptoms, including substance use disorders, affective disorders and personality disorders. Further differences were found regarding frequency of Internet use regarding social networking sites and online-pornography. Patients with Internet addiction have a heightened probability for meeting criteria of bipolar disorders. It is not possible to draw conclusions regarding the direction of this association but it is recommended to implement screening for bipolar disorders in patients presenting with Internet addiction.

Question: Bipolar spectrum disorders in a clinical sample of patients with Internet addiction: hidden comorbidity or differential diagnosis?

Similar to gambling disorder, it might prove necessary to subsume bipolar disorders as an exclusion criterion for the future criteria of Internet addiction.

Answer the question based on the following context: Provocative discography, an invasive diagnostic procedure involving disc puncture with pressurization, is a test for presumptive discogenic pain in the lumbar spine. The clinical validity of this test is unproven. Data from multiple animal studies confirm that disc puncture causes early disc degeneration. A recent study identified radiographic disc degeneration on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) performed 10 years later in human subjects exposed to provocative discography. The clinical effect of this disc degeneration after provocative discography is unknown. The aim of this study was to investigate the clinical effects of lumbar provocative discography on patients subjected to this evaluation method.STUDY DESIGN/ A prospective, 10-year matched cohort study. Subjects (n=75) without current low back pain (LBP) problems were recruited to participate in a study of provocative discography at the L3-S1 discs. A closely matched control cohort was simultaneously recruited to undergo a similar evaluation except for discography injections. The primary outcome variables were diagnostic imaging events and lumbar disc surgery events. The secondary outcome variables were serious LBP events, disability events, and medical visits. The discography subjects and control subjects were followed by serial protocol evaluations at 1, 2, 5, and 10 years after enrollment. The lumbar disc surgery events and diagnostic imaging (computed tomography (CT) or MRI) events were recorded. In addition, the interval and cumulative lumbar spine events were recorded. Of the 150 subjects enrolled, 71 discography subjects and 72 control subjects completed the baseline evaluation. At 10-year follow-up, 57 discography and 53 control subjects completed all interval surveillance evaluations. There were 16 lumbar surgeries in the discography group, compared with four in the control group. Medical visits, CT/MRI examinations, work loss, and prolonged back pain episodes were all more frequent in the discography group compared with control subjects.

Question: Does provocative discography cause clinically important injury to the lumbar intervertebral disc?

The disc puncture and pressurized injection performed during provocative discography can increase the risk of clinical disc problems in exposed patients.

Answer the question based on the following context: The ideal target of bone mineral density (BMD) measurements of the spine is the trabecula-rich vertebral body. Yet, spine BMD measurements routinely obtained with dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry also include the posterior elements of the vertebra, which are mainly cortical bone and insensitive to bone loss. We compared the bone mass of the vertebral body and posterior elements to determine the contributions of vertebral components to vertebral BMD measurements. A micro-computed tomography study of lumbar vertebral bone. From a spine archive, 144 cadaveric lumbar vertebrae (L1-L5) from 48 male human spines (mean age, 50 years) were scanned in air using micro-computed tomography to measure bone volume, bone mineral content (BMC) and BMD of the vertebral body, posterior elements, and entire vertebra. The contributions of the vertebral components to the total vertebral BMC and volume were compared, and the correlations between the BMC and BMD of the vertebrae and their components were examined. Overall, the vertebral body contributed about one-third of the total vertebral BMC and two-thirds of the total vertebral volume, and the posterior elements contributed the remainder. The vertebral body BMC and BMD were poorly correlated to those of the posterior elements (r=0.39 for BMC and r=0.34 for BMD, p<.0001) and moderately correlated to the whole vertebra (r=0.77 and 0.75, respectively, p<.0001). The BMC and BMD of the posterior elements and whole vertebra were more strongly correlated (r=0.89 and 0.84, respectively, p<.0001).

Question: The distribution of bone mass in the lumbar vertebrae: are we measuring the right target?

The posterior elements are the primary contributor to vertebral BMC and BMD measurements. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry spine BMD measurements are likely to be more representative of the posterior elements than the targeted vertebral body. The findings elucidate the extent of the limitation of dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry spine BMD measurements.

Answer the question based on the following context: The combination of left atrial appendage (LAA) occlusion with pulmonary vein isolation (PVI) potentially represents a comprehensive treatment for atrial fibrillation (AF), controlling symptoms while at the same time reducing the risk of stroke and the need for chronic anticoagulation. The aim of this randomized clinical trial was to assess the impact of LAA closure added to PVI in patients with high-risk AF. Patients with a history of symptomatic paroxysmal or persistent AF refractory to ≥ 2 antiarrhythmic drugs, CHA2DS2-VASc score ≥ 2, and HAS-BLED score ≥ 3 were randomized to PVI-only (n = 44) or PVI with LAA closure (n = 45). Six patients in PVI + LAA closure group crossed over to PVI-only group due to failure of LAA closure device implantation. On-treatment comparisons at the 24 month follow-up revealed that 33 (66%) of the 50 PVI group and 23 (59%) of the 39 PVI with LAA closure group were AF-free on no antiarrhythmic drugs (p = 0.34). The PVI + LAA closure treatment was significantly associated with a higher AF burden during the blanking period: 9.7 ± 10.8 vs 4.2 ± 4.1% (p = 0.004). At the end follow-up, there were no serious complications and no strokes or thromboembolic events in either group.

Question: Does left atrial appendage closure improve the success of pulmonary vein isolation?

The combination of LAA closure device implantation with PVI was safe but was not observed to influence the success of PVI in patients with symptomatic refractory AF. Early AF after ablation, however, is increased by LAA closure.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate the validity and reliability of German Diagnosis Related Group administrative data to measure indicators of patient safety in comparison to clinical records. A cross-sectional study was conducted using chart review (CR) as gold standard and screening of associated administrative data based on DRG coding. Three German somatic acute care hospitals for adults. A total of 3000 cases treated between May and December, 2010. Eight indicators were used to analyse the incidence of associated adverse events (AEs): pressure ulcers, catheter-related infections, respiratory failure, deep vein thromboses, hospital-acquired pneumonia, acute renal failure, acute myocardial infarction and wound infections. We calculated sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV) and Cohen's Kappa with 95% confidence intervals. Screening of administrative data identified 171 AEs and 456 were identified by CR. A number of 135 identical events were identified by both methods. Sensitivities for the detection of AEs using administrative data ranged from 6 to 100%. Specificities ranged from 99 to 100%. PPV were 33 to 100% and reliabilities were 12 to 85%.

Question: Are administrative data valid when measuring patient safety in hospitals?

Indicators based on German administrative data deviate widely from indicators based on clinical data. Therefore, hospitals should be cautious to use indicators based on administrative data for quality assurance. However, some might be useful for case findings and quality improvement. The precision of the evaluated indicators needs further development to detect AEs by the valid use of administrative data.

Answer the question based on the following context: This study aimed to examine neuropsychological processing in children and adolescents with Anorexia Nervosa (AN). The relationship of clinical and demographic variables to neuropsychological functioning within the AN group was also explored. The performance of 41 children and adolescents with a diagnosis of AN were compared to 43 healthy control (HC) participants on a number of neuropsychological measures. There were no differences in IQ between AN and HC groups. However, children and adolescents with AN displayed significantly more perseverative errors on the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test, and lower Style and Central Coherence scores on the Rey Osterrieth Complex Figure Test relative to HCs.

Question: Do Children and Adolescents with Anorexia Nervosa Display an Inefficient Cognitive Processing Style?

Inefficient cognitive processing in the AN group was independent of clinical and demographic variables, suggesting it might represent an underlying trait for AN. The implications of these findings are discussed.

Answer the question based on the following context: This study compares radioembolization ((90)Y) versus doxorubicin drug eluting beads (DEBDOX) in the treatment of unresectable hepatocellular carcinoma with portal vein thrombosis. Using our prospectively maintained, multi-center, non-controlled intra-arterial therapy registry, we identified 28 consecutive patients with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and portal vein thrombosis (PVT) treated with DEBDOX and 20 with (90)Y. Follow-up protocol consisted of a 3-phase CT scan of the liver within 3 months post-treatment. Tumor response rates were measured according to modified Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (mRECIST) criteria. There were 65 and 29 treatments in the DEBDOX and (90)Y groups respectively. Median age of DEBDOX was 59.8 (35-81) and (90)Y was 66.5 (49-82) years. A defined number of lesions were seen in 78% DEBDOX and 50% (90)Y patients. Patients were similar in the remaining 8 baseline characteristics including performance status, Child Pugh and extent of PVT. There were fewer overall side effects in the DEBDOX group compared to the (90)Y group (11% vs 39%; P = 0.03). There was better disease control (mRECIST) in the DEBDOX group compared to the (90)Y group (67% vs 20%; P = 0.0014). Median survival times were 10 months in DEBDOX and 3 months in the (90)Y group respectively from first treatment (log-rank, P = 0.037).

Question: Is radioembolization ((90)Y) better than doxorubicin drug eluting beads (DEBDOX) for hepatocellular carcinoma with portal vein thrombosis?

DEBDOX is safe for patients with HCC and PVT and may have lower toxicity than (90)Y. It may also provide better disease control and survival benefit. Further studies are warranted to validate our observations and to determine if current clinical practice should be altered.

Answer the question based on the following context: To report a single centre outcome of management of Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH), a clonal disease with involvement of various body systems. Retrospective analysis of 80 pediatric LCH patients at Children Cancer Hospital-Egypt between July 2007 and December 2011 was performed. Patients were stratified and treated according to LCH III protocol. The median follow up period was 42 mo (range: 1.18 to 71 mo). At wk 6 and 12, 'better' response was obtained in 61 (76 %) and 74 (93 %) patients respectively. Afterwards, reactivation occurred in 25 patients (38 %), of them multiple episodes occurred in 5 patients (6.25 %), managed by repetition of 1st line treatment for once or more. The 5 y overall survival (OS) and event free survival (EFS) was 96.3 and 55 % respectively. At last follow up, better status was reached in 70 patients, 3 in each 'intermediate' and 'worse' status. Three high risk patients died and one patient was lost to follow up.

Question: Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH) in Egyptian Children: Does Reactivation Affect the Outcome?

In a single Egyptian pediatric LCH experience, the response to treatment is satisfactory and survival remains the rule except in high risk organs disease that still needs a new molecule for salvage. However in multiple reactivations, patients do well with repetition of the 1st line of treatment with or without methotrexate.

Answer the question based on the following context: The hyperdense artery sign (HAS) on CT brain scan is an assumed radiological marker of acute intra-arterial thrombotic occlusion. However, the relationship between HAS between time of stroke onset has not been adequately investigated, leading to uncertainty regarding its validity as a marker of acute ischaemia. We attempted to determine if the presence of the hyperdense artery sign is associated with time from stroke onset. Retrospective cross-sectional study conducted in a tertiary referral centre. Consecutive patients with acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed middle cerebral arterial occlusion on initial CT angiogram from 2007-2011 were included. Visual estimation and manual measurement of Hounsfield units of affected and corresponding non-affected artery on non-contrast CT was completed and mean density was calculated from four separate readings. Primary outcome measures were Time from stroke onset and HAS on both visual estimation and the ratio of mean value in Hounsfield Units (HU) of affected to non-affected artery. One hundred and fifty-four subjects with confirmed arterial occlusion on CT Angiogram were included in the study. There were no significant differences in age distribution or vascular risk factor presence between subjects with or without HAS. Subjects with HAS were less likely to be male (50.9% vs 70.8%, p = 0.02).) HAS was found in 106 (68.8%) of all subjects. Median NIHSS score at presentation was significantly higher in the HAS group (17 vs 12, p = 0.02). No statistically significant association between HAS and stroke onset time or density ratio between affected and non-affected artery was detected overall within either the first 24-h or on subgroup analysis of those in the first 4.5-h. A small subgroup of three patients with stroke onset greater than 24-h all had absent HAS.

Question: Is there association between hyperdense middle cerebral artery sign on CT scan and time from stroke onset within the first 24-hours?

No evidence of a correlation between time of stroke onset and presence of a HAS within the first 24-h post acute ischaemic stroke was identified. The HAS was associated with a higher NIHSS score at presentation.

Answer the question based on the following context: This paper aims to demonstrate if Escherichia coli pyogenic liver abscess (ECPLA) results in adverse outcomes compared to Klebsiella pneumoniae PLA (KPPLA). A retrospective review of all patients admitted at a tertiary hospital in Singapore from 2003 to 2011 was performed. Patients with age<18 years, amoebic liver abscess, infected liver cyst, culture negative abscess or ruptured liver abscess requiring urgent surgical intervention were excluded. Only patients with blood or pus culture confirmation of ECPLA (n = 24) or KPPLA (n = 264) were included. Median length of hospital stay, failure of non-operative therapy and 30-day mortality are the reported outcomes. ECPLA affects older patients (68 vs. 62 years, p = 0.049). Ischemic heart disease was more common in ECPLA (29 vs. 14 %, p = 0.048) and there was no difference in diabetic state (42 vs. 38 %, p = 0.743). ECPLA is more commonly associated with hyperbilirubinemia (60 vs. 34 µmol/L, p = 0.003), increased gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (236 vs. 16 IU/L, p = 0.038) and gallstones (58 vs. 30 %, p = 0.004). KPPLA are larger in size (6 vs. 4 cm, p = 0.006) and had percutaneous drainage (PD) more frequently (64 vs. 42 %, p = 0.034). There was no difference in median hospital stay (14 vs. 14 days, p = 0.110) or 30-day mortality (17 vs. 10 %, p = 0.307) between ECPLA and KPPLA. Among patients with ECPLA, antibiotic treatment with PD appeared to have higher mortality compared to antibiotic treatment alone (30 vs. 7 %) but this was not significant (p = 0.272).

Question: Pyogenic Liver Abscess: Does Escherichia Coli Cause more Adverse Outcomes than Klebsiella Pneumoniae?

In the setting of multimodal care, outcomes of ECPLA are comparable to KPPLA.

Answer the question based on the following context: Despite the documented prevalence and clinical ramifications of physician distress, few rigorous studies have tested interventions to address the problem. To test the hypothesis that an intervention involving a facilitated physician small-group curriculum would result in improvement in well-being. A randomized clinical trial of practicing physicians. Additional data were collected on nontrial participants responding to annual surveys timed to coincide with the trial surveys. Department of Medicine at the Mayo Clinic in Rochester, Minnesota between September 2010 and June 2012. The study involved 74 practicing physicians in the Department of Medicine and 350 nontrial participants responding to annual surveys. The intervention involved 19 biweekly facilitated physician discussion groups incorporating elements of mindfulness, reflection, shared experience, and small-group learning for 9 months. Protected time (1 hour of paid time every other week) for participants was provided by the institution. Meaning in work, empowerment and engagement in work, burnout, symptoms of depression, quality of life, and job satisfaction were assessed using validated metrics. Empowerment and engagement at work increased by 5.3 points in the intervention arm vs. a 0.5-point decline in the control arm by 3 months after the study (P = .04), an improvement sustained at 12 months (+5.5 vs. +1.3 points; P = .03). Rates of high depersonalization at 3 months had decreased by 15.5 % in the intervention arm vs. a 0.8 % increase in the control arm (P = .004). This difference was also sustained at 12 months (9.6 % vs. 1.5 % decrease; P = .02). No statistically significant differences in stress, symptoms of depression, overall quality of life, or job satisfaction were seen. In additional comparisons including the nontrial physician cohort, the proportion of participants strongly agreeing that their work was meaningful increased 6.3 % in the study intervention arm but decreased 6.3 % in the study control arm and 13.4 % in the nonstudy cohort (P = .04). Rates of depersonalization, emotional exhaustion, and overall burnout decreased substantially in the trial intervention arm, decreased slightly in the trial control arm, and increased in the nontrial cohort (P = .03, P = .007, and P = .002 for each outcome, respectively).

Question: Physician burnout: can we make a difference together?

An intervention for physicians based on a facilitated small-group curriculum improved meaning and engagement in work and reduced depersonalization, with sustained results 12 months after the study.

Answer the question based on the following context: Sixty-two percent of patients would like their doctor to recommend a specific web site to find health information, but only 3% of patients receive such recommendations. We investigated whether providing patients with an Internet web-site link recommended by their physician would improve patient knowledge and satisfaction. Our hypothesis was that directing patients to a reliable web site would improve both. Sixty patients with a new diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome were prospectively randomized into two groups. Twenty-three patients in the control group had a traditional physician office visit and received standard care for carpal tunnel syndrome. Thirty-seven patients in the treatment group received a handout that directed them to the American Society for Surgery of the Hand (ASSH) web page on carpal tunnel syndrome in addition to the standard care provided in the office visit. Patients later completed a ten-question true-or-false knowledge questionnaire and a six-item satisfaction survey. Differences in scores were analyzed using two-sample t tests. Less than half (48%) of the patients who were given the Internet directive reported that they had visited the recommended web site. The mean scores on the knowledge assessment (6.84 of 10 for the treatment group and 6.96 of 10 for the control group) and the satisfaction survey (4.49 of 5 for the treatment group and 4.43 of 5 for the control group) were similar for both groups. The mean score for knowledge was similar for the patients who had used the ASSH web site and for those who had not (6.89 and 6.97 respectively). Moreover, compared with patients who had not used the Internet at all to learn about carpal tunnel syndrome, patients who used the Internet scored 6.6% better (mean score, 7.14 for those who used the Internet compared with 6.70 for those who had not; p>0.05). Regardless of Internet usage, most patients scored well on the knowledge assessment and reported a high level of satisfaction.

Question: Does a Directive to an Internet Site Enhance the Doctor-Patient Interaction?

Whether the patient was given a handout or had visited the ASSH or other Internet web sites, the knowledge and satisfaction scores for all patients were similar. Since the physician was the common denominator in both groups, the results indicate that the patient-physician relationship may be more valuable than the Internet in providing patient education.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of this study was to characterise the deaths of children from asthma in New South Wales (NSW) over the last 10 years and ascertain whether there were modifiable factors that could have prevented the deaths. The hospital medical records, coronial reports, immunisation records and all relevant correspondence from general practitioners, medical specialists and hospitals were reviewed for children who died with asthma in the 10 years (2004-2013). In 10 years, there were 20 deaths (0-7 per year) with a male predominance (70%) occurring in children aged 4-17 years. Sixteen (80%) had persistent asthma and 4 (20%) had intermittent asthma. The majority (55%) had been hospitalised for asthma in the preceding 12 months, 25% in the preceding 6 weeks. The majority (55%) was aged 10-14 years. Ninety percent were atopic. Psychosocial issues were identified in the majority (55%) of families. Forty percent had a child protection history. Seventy-five percent had consulted a general practitioner in the year before their death, 45% had a current written asthma action plan and 50% had not seen a paediatrician ever in relation to their asthma. Of the 16 children at school, the schools were aware of the asthma in 14 (88%) cases, but only half had copies of written asthma plans.

Question: Asthma deaths in children in New South Wales 2004-2013: Could we have done more?

Improved communication and oversight between health-care providers, education and community protection agencies could reduce mortality from asthma in children.

Answer the question based on the following context: More than one-fifth of the United Kingdom population has poor vitamin D status (serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D [25(OH)D] concentration<25 nmol/L), particularly individuals with low sun exposure or poor dietary intake. We identified the fortification vehicle and concentration most likely to safely increase population vitamin D intakes and vitamin D status. Wheat flour and milk were identified as primary fortification vehicles for their universal consumption in population groups most at risk of vitamin D deficiency including children aged 18-36 mo, females aged 15-49 y, and adults aged ≥65 y. With the use of data from the first 2 y (2008-2010) of the National Diet and Nutrition Survey Rolling Program, we simulated the effect of fortifying wheat flour and milk with vitamin D on United Kingdom food consumption. Empirically derived equations for the relation between vitamin D intake and the serum 25(OH)D concentration were used to estimate the population serum 25(OH)D concentration for each fortification scenario. At a simulated fortification of 10 μg vitamin D/100 g wheat flour, the proportion of at-risk groups estimated to have vitamin D intakes below United Kingdom Reference Nutrient Intakes was reduced from 93% to 50%, with no individual exceeding the United Kingdom Tolerable Upper Intake Level; the 2.5th percentile of the population winter serum 25(OH)D concentration rose from 20 to 27 nmol/L after fortification. The simulation of the fortification of wheat flour at this concentration was more effective than that of the fortification of milk (at concentrations between 0.25 and 7 mg vitamin D/100 L milk) or of the fortification of milk and flour combined.

Question: Does fortification of staple foods improve vitamin D intakes and status of groups at risk of deficiency?

To our knowledge, this study provides new evidence that vitamin D fortification of wheat flour could be a viable option for safely improving vitamin D intakes and the status of United Kingdom population groups at risk of deficiency without increasing risk of exceeding current reference thresholds.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate the medium-term effect of epidural analgesia (EA) on the possible onset of postpartum urinary incontinence (PUI). We performed a single-centre, retrospective case-control study. At 8-week postpartum, we recruited a cohort of women who had term singleton pregnancy and foetus in cephalic presentation, and divided in six groups: (1) vaginal delivery without episiotomy, without EA; (2) vaginal delivery without episiotomy, with EA; (3) vaginal delivery with episiotomy, without EA; (4) vaginal delivery with episiotomy, with EA; (5) emergency caesarean section without previous EA during labour and (6) emergency caesarean section with previous EA during labour. For each woman, we recorded age, Body Mass Index (BMI) and the result of the following questionnaire for urinary incontinence: International Consultation on Incontinence Questionnaire Short Form (ICIQ-SF), Incontinence Impact Questionnaire-7 (IIQ-7) and Urogenital Distress Inventory-6 (UDI-6). Subsequently, we compared group 1 versus group 2, group 3 versus group 4 and group 5 versus group 6. We did not evidence any significant difference for age, BMI and incontinence scores between groups 1 and 2, 3 and 4, and 5 and 6.

Question: Does epidural analgesia play a role in postpartum urinary incontinence?

EA did not affect the onset of PUI in medium-term, regardless the mode of delivery.

Answer the question based on the following context: Vaginal twin deliveries have a higher rate of intrapartum interventions. We aimed to determine whether these characteristics are associated with an increased rate of obstetric anal sphincter injuries compared with singleton. Retrospective study of all twin pregnancies undergoing vaginal delivery trial was conducted from January 2000-September 2014. Sphincter injury rate compared with all concurrent singleton vaginal deliveries. Multivariable analysis was used to determine twin delivery association with sphincter injuries while adjusting for confounders. About 717 eligible twin deliveries. Outcome was compared with 33 886 singleton deliveries. Twin pregnancies characterized by a higher rate of nulliparity (54.8% versus 49.5%, p = 0.005), labor induction (42.7% versus 29.1%, p < 0.001), and instrumental deliveries (27.5% versus 16.7%, p < 0.001), lower gestational (34.6 ± 3.3 versus 38.8 ± 2.3, p < 0.001), and lower birth weight. Total breech extraction was performed in 29.0% (208/717) of twin deliveries. Overall obstetric sphincter injury rate was significantly lower in the twins group (2.8% versus 4.4%, p = 0.03, OR = 0.6, 95% CI 0.4-0.9), due to lower rate of 3rd degree tears in twins versus singletons (2.2% versus 4.0%, p = 0.02), rate of 4th degree tears similar among the groups (0.6% versus 0.4%, p = 0.5). In multivariable analysis, sphincter injuries were associated with nulliparity (OR = 3.9, 95% CI 3.4-4.5), forceps (OR = 6.8, 95% CI 5.8-7.8), vacuum (OR = 2.9, 95% CI 2.5-3.3), earlier gestational age (OR = 0.2, 95% CI 0.1-0.3), episiotomy (OR = 0.8, 95% CI 0.7-0.9), and birth weight over 3500 g (OR = 1.8, 95% CI 1.6-2.0). However, the association between twins (versus singletons) deliveries and sphincter injuries was lost after adjustment for delivery gestational age (OR = 0.7, 95% CI 0.4-1.2).

Question: Is the risk of obstetric anal sphincter injuries increased in vaginal twin deliveries?

Despite a higher rate of intrapartum interventions, the rate of sphincter injuries is lower in twins versus singleton deliveries, mainly due to a lower gestational age at delivery.

Answer the question based on the following context: The purpose of this study was to investigate the effect of diurnal variation on biochemical results of first trimester aneuploidy screening test. A total of 2725 singleton pregnant female, who had normal fetal nuchal translucency (NT) thickness, were included in the study during this period. Individuals were divided into two groups according to the sampling time (morning group: 09:00-11:00 am and afternoon group: 02:00-04:00 pm). Hormonal parameters (free-beta human chorionic gonadotropin [free β-hCG] and pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A [PAPP-A]multiples of median [MoM] levels) of first trimester (11(+0)-13(+6) weeks) combined aneuploidy screening test were compared between morning and afternoon groups. PAPP-A MoM levels were significantly lower in the afternoon group when compared to the morning group (p = 0.001), whereas free β-hCG MoM levels were similar in the both groups (p = 0.392). Rate of high risk for Down syndrome (Combine risk>1/300) and amniocentesis ratio were found higher in the afternoon group than morning group, but there were no difference between groups for the number of fetuses with Down syndrome.

Question: Does diurnal variation affect the first trimester fetal aneuploidy screening test biochemical parameters of fetuses with normal nuchal translucency?

Receiving the venous blood sample for first trimester aneuploidy screening test in the afternoon causes low PAPP-A MoM levels.

Answer the question based on the following context: Whether the isolated VSD (i-VSD) is associated with aneuploidy to the same degree as a more severe heart anomaly is unclear. Our objective was to determine the likelihood of aneuploidy in pregnancies at a tertiary referral center when an i-VSD is detected before 24 weeks. A retrospective chart review of all detailed anatomy ultrasounds before 24 weeks performed at the University of Kansas Medical Center from 08/23/2006 to 06/07/2012 was conducted. A complete evaluation of the fetal heart was accomplished using gray scale and spectral/color Doppler examinations. The outcomes of each pregnancy were reviewed for any diagnoses of aneuploidy. Odds ratios were calculated. A total of 4078 pregnancies with complete obstetric and neonatal data were reviewed. The prevalence of an i-VSD was 2.7% (112/4078). The odds ratio of aneuploidy when an i-VSD was present was (OR: 36.0, 95% CI: 5.0, 258.1). This odds ratio remained large when either an abnormal or unknown serum screen was present.

Question: Is an isolated ventricular septal defect detected before 24 weeks on ultrasound associated with fetal aneuploidy?

The presence of an i-VSD present before 24 weeks does increase the risk of fetal aneuploidy. Whether a normal serum screen or first trimester screen for aneuploidy negates the association of an i-VSD with aneuploidy still remains undetermined.

Answer the question based on the following context: A temporary defunctioning loop ileostomy is frequently created during low colorectal or coloanal anastomosis to prevent peritoneal sepsis associated with anastomotic leakage. We investigated whether routine support bridge placement prevents stoma retraction after the formation of a loop ileostomy. Prospective, nonrandomized trial. The study sample comprised 32 consecutive patients who underwent defunctioning loop ileostomy at an academic tertiary care center in Seoul Korea from February to September 2010. Patients were nonrandomly allocated to "no bridge," "short-term bridge" (1 week), and "long-term bridge" (3 weeks) groups based on the surgeon's clinical judgment. Group differences in stoma height changes over time were analyzed. Subjects' mean age was 59.5 (range: 43-82) years, and the male-to-female ratio was 2.2:1.0. The mean heights of the stoma on postoperative day 2 and postoperative month 3, respectively, were 1.07 ± 0.16 cm (mean ± SD) and 0.81 ± 0.17 cm in the no-bridge group, 1.70 ± 0.29 cm and 1.21 ± 0.18 cm in the short-term bridge group, and 1.18 ± 0.16 cm and 1.01 ± 0.20 cm in the long-term bridge group. The changes in the stoma height 3 months after the surgery showed no statistically significant differences among the groups (P = .430). Stoma Quality of Life scores at 3 weeks (47.4 vs 46.1; P = .730) were similar for patients with and without bridges. However, a significantly greater number of patients with bridges reported difficulty with pouch changes compared to those without bridges (72.7% vs 14.3%; P = .002).

Question: Is the Use of a Support Bridge Beneficial for Preventing Stomal Retraction After Loop Ileostomy?

Routine use of support bridges during loop ileostomy is unnecessary and inconvenient to patients. If a support bridge must be used, it can be removed early.

Answer the question based on the following context: To investigate the feasibility of using incontinence-associated dermatitis (IAD) tools in routine clinical practice by asking nursing home staff (RNs and non-RN caregivers) and tissue viability specialty (TVS) nurses to evaluate 3 instruments and a 4-point severity scoring system for describing and grading IAD examples captured in photographs of skin underneath absorptive pads in nursing home patients. Feasibility study. Twelve female nursing home residents whose incontinence was managed with pads and who had previously been identified as experiencing IAD were recruited, along with 16 nursing home staff (6 RNs and 10 non-RNs) and 10 TVS nurses. Weekly high-quality photographs were taken of the skin beneath absorptive pads of nursing home residents for 8 weeks yielding a library of 78 photographs. A subset of 10 representative photographs was chosen. The 16 nursing home staff and 10 TVS nurses were then asked to describe and grade the IAD in the 10 photographs using 3 IAD instruments and simple severity scoring system (SSS) developed for this study. Particular attention was paid to identifying any practical challenges staff encountered in conducting their task. The TVS nurses were able to use all 3 IAD instruments and the SSS and reported that they could incorporate them into their clinical practice with relative ease. Although the RNs were able to use the 3 instruments adequately with some initial assistance, they generally felt that they were too busy to complete them. By contrast, they reported that they found the SSS simple and quick enough to incorporate into their routine practice. The caregivers had difficulty with the text-based instruments, especially if English was not their first language, and they were only able to use the SSS. The caregivers' SSS scores for a given photograph varied more than TVS nurse scores, but the correlation between the mean TVS scores, which were operationally defined as the gold standard for purposes of this study, and the mean RN and caregiver scores (R = 0.811) were fairly high.

Question: Is it Feasible to Use Incontinence-Associated Dermatitis Assessment Tools in Routine Clinical Practice in the Long-term Care Setting?

Existing IAD instruments are too time-consuming and linguistically complex for use in routine clinical practice in nursing homes. We found that staff generally found the SSS easy to judge IAD severity based on pictures used in the study. This finding suggests that the SSS could be improved by adding reference photographs of skin illustrating each of the 4 points on the scale. Such an instrument could be designed and validated with an emphasis on integration into current clinical practice pathways.

Answer the question based on the following context: To assess the cardiovascular health, markers of cardiovascular aging and telomere length in survivors of the siege of Leningrad, who were either born during the siege or lived in the besieged city in their early childhood. Survivors of the Leningrad siege (n = 305, 64-81 years) and a control group of age and sex-matched individuals (n = 51, 67-82 years) were examined in terms of a observational retrospective cohort study. All participants were interviewed regarding risk factors, cardiovascular diseases, and therapy. Blood pressure measurement, anthropometry, echocardiography, and electrocardiography were performed according to standard guidelines. Fasting lipids and glucose were measured. Relative telomere length was measured by quantitative PCR, and the ratio of telomere repeat copy number to single gene copy number (T/S) was calculated for each DNA sample. Survivors had lower anthropometric parameters (height, weight, and BMI) and higher high-density lipoprotein level. There were no significant differences in the prevalence of cardiovascular diseases and target organ damage between groups. However, survivors had shorter telomere length: T/S ratio 0.44 (0.25; 0.64) vs. controls 0.91 (0.47; 1.13) (P < 0.0001), both in men and women, with clear association with the period of famine in early life. Exposure to famine in childhood and intrauterine period of life was associated with a higher prevalence of hypertension and shorter telomere length.

Question: Seventy years after the siege of Leningrad: does early life famine still affect cardiovascular risk and aging?

Early-life famine, especially started in the intrauterine period and late childhood, may contribute to accelerated aging with telomere shortening in both sexes, but has no direct effect on the prevalence of cardiovascular diseases and risk factors after seven decades since exposure.

Answer the question based on the following context: To describe individual and aggregate outcomes for patients undergoing alcohol septal ablation (ASA) for hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM). Retrospective case series reviewing all patients undergoing ASA at a United Kingdom tertiary referral center from 2000-2012. Aggregate and individual outcomes are described in terms of symptomatic and hemodynamic response. Eighty-eight patients were reviewed. Alcohol was delivered in 84, with clinical status data available in 82 and hemodynamic data available in 74. All patients had resting or exercise stress left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) gradient>50 mm Hg. Mean age was 60.3 ± 14.3 years. Follow-up period was 4.2 ± 3.3 years. Twenty-four patients (27%) required ≥2 procedures. Complete heart block was observed in 17%. New York Heart Association (NYHA) class pre ASA was 2.80 ± 0.46, improving to 1.92 ± 0.84 post ASA (P<.001). Fifty-eight out of 82 patients (71%) had improved NYHA class. Resting peak gradient was 99.80 ± 45.86 mm Hg. Post-ASA peak gradient fell to 23.77 ± 41.87 mm Hg (P<.001). Sixty-one out of 74 patients (82%) had successful treatment of LVOT gradient. A successful outcome in both symptomatic and gradient treatment was seen in 66% of patients. No patient who received alcohol suffered sudden cardiac death. Fifteen patients had implantable cardioverter defibrillator implantation; no appropriate therapy was delivered.

Question: Alcohol Septal Ablation for Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy: Safe and Apparently Efficacious But Does Reporting of Aggregate Outcomes Hide Less-Favorable Results, Experienced by a Substantial Proportion of Patients?

ASA is safe, with few major complications. Aggregate outcomes are good, but can hide individual failure. There is a need to refine case selection, procedure planning, and performance to secure more uniform favorable outcomes.

Answer the question based on the following context: Registry data for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) are being used in New York and Massachusetts and by the American College of Cardiology to risk-adjust provider mortality rates. These registries contain very few numerical laboratory data for risk adjustment. For 20 hospitals, New York's PCI registry data from 2008-2010 were used to develop statistic models for predicting in-hospital/30-day mortality with and without appended laboratory data. Discrimination, calibration, correlation in hospital's risk-adjusted mortality rates, and differences in hospital quality outlier status were compared for the two models. The discrimination of the risk-adjustment models was very similar (C-statistic = 0.898 from the registry model vs C-statistic = 0.908 from the registry/laboratory model; P=.40). Most of the non-laboratory variables in the two models were identical, except that the registry model contained malignant ventricular arrhythmia and the registry/laboratory model contained previous coronary artery bypass surgery. The registry/laboratory model also contained albumin ≤3.3 g/dL, creatine kinase ≥600 U/L, glucose ≥270 mg/dL, platelet count>350 k/μL, potassium>51 mmol/L, and partial thromboplastin time>40 seconds. The addition of laboratory data did not affect outlier status for better-performing hospitals, but there were differences in identifying the hospitals with significantly higher risk-adjusted mortality rates.

Question: Can Adding Laboratory Values Improve Risk-Adjustment Mortality Models Using Clinical Percutaneous Cardiac Intervention Registry Data?

Adding laboratory data did not significantly improve the risk-adjustment mortality models' performance and did not dramatically change the quality assessment of hospitals. The pros and cons of adding key laboratory variables to PCI registries require further evaluation.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine the success rate of the manovacuometry test in children between 4 and 12 years of age. Cross-sectional study involving children and adolescents from 4 to 12 years of age, enrolled in three basic education schools. All subjects had the anthropometric and respiratory muscle strength (maximum inspiratory pressure and maximum expiratory pressure) data measured. Students whose parents did not authorize participation or who did not want to undergo the test were excluded. The test was considered successful when the subject reached acceptability (no air leaks) and reproducibility (variation<10% between the two major maneuvers) criteria established by guidelines. Failure was defined when subjects did not meet the above criteria. Data were expressed as mean and standard deviation and in absolute and relative frequency. The comparison between proportions was performed using the chi-square test. We included 196 children and adolescents, mean age of 8.4±2.5 years, 53.1% female. The success rate of the manovacuometry test in children and adolescents evaluated was 92.3%. When comparing the differences between the success rates of preschool children with those children and adolescents of school age, there was a significantly lower success rate in the pre-school (85.1%) group compared to the school group (94.6%) (p=0.032). However, no significant differences (p=0.575) were found when gender comparisons were performed.

Question: Respiratory muscle strength test: is it realistic in young children?

The manovacuometry test showed a high success rate in both preschool and school population assessed. Furthermore, the rate of success appears to be related to aging.

Answer the question based on the following context: In this retrospective study, a total of 482 eligible patients were divided into 2 groups: AVS present and AVS absent. All major cardiovascular risk factors and coronary lesion characteristics were included. Age was the only independent predictor of AVS. AVS was not independently associated with the number of obstructive vessels, degree of lesion obstruction and SYNTAX score.

Question: Does aortic valve sclerosis predicts the severity and complexity of coronary artery disease?

AVS is probably a benign marker of age-related degenerative changes in the heart independent of the severity and complexity of CAD.

Answer the question based on the following context: If physical impairments that are associated with poorer outcomes can be identified in people with chondrolabral hip pathology, then rehabilitation programmes that target such modifiable impairments could potentially be established to improve quality of life. The aim of this study was to examine the relationship between quality-of-life PROs and physical impairment measurements in people with chondrolabral pathology post-hip arthroscopic surgery. This was a cross-sectional study where multiple stepwise linear regression analyses were conducted to determine which physical impairment measurements were most associated with poorer quality-of-life patient-reported outcomes (PROs). Eighty-four patients (42 women; all aged 36 ± 10 years) with hip chondrolabral pathology 12- to 24-month post-hip arthroscopy were included. The Hip disability and Osteoarthritis Outcome Score Quality-of-life (HOOS-Q) subscale and International Hip Outcome Tool (IHOT-33) PROs were collected. Measurements of active hip ROM and strength were assessed. Modifiable post-surgical physical impairments were associated with PRO in patients with chondrolabral pathology. Greater hip flexion ROM was independently associated with better scores in both HOOS-Q and IHOT-33 (adjusted r2values ranged from 0.249 to 0.341). Greater hip adduction strength was independently associated with better HOOS-Q and IHOT-33 (adjusted r20.227-0.317). Receiver Operator Curve analyses determined that the limit value for hip flexion ROM was 100° (sensitivity 92 %, specificity 75 %), and hip adduction strength was 0.86 Nm/kg (sensitivity 96 %, specificity 70 %).

Question: Is quality of life following hip arthroscopy in patients with chondrolabral pathology associated with impairments in hip strength or range of motion?

Hip flexion ROM and adduction strength were associated with better quality-of-life PRO scores in patients with chondrolabral pathology 12- to 24-month post-hip arthroscopy. These impairments could be targeted by clinicians designing rehabilitation programmes to this patient group.

Answer the question based on the following context: Activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system in depressed patients has been related to visceral adiposity. In contrast, low HPA system activity is associated with increased body fat in the general population. Our study intended to clarify whether HPA system activity is related to body weight and composition in depressed inpatients. In a cohort of 51 female and 20 male depressed inpatients, we measured saliva cortisol (HPA system activity), body mass index (BMI), waist circumference as well as body composition as reflected by bioimpedance. In female patients, cortisol in saliva was negatively associated with fat-to-muscle ratio and BMI.

Question: Hypercortisolemic Depressed Women: Lean but Viscerally Obese?

In depressed inpatients, especially women, there is evidence that activation of the HPA system is related to relatively low body weight and low body fat content.

Answer the question based on the following context: To assess the relationship between body mass index (BMI) and survival outcomes in Korean patients with upper-tract urothelial carcinoma (UTUC). A single-institutional retrospective analysis was conducted using clinical and pathological data of 445 UTUC patients who had undergone radical nephroureterectomy with bladder cuff excision from 1997 to 2012. Enrolled patients were classified into normal weight (BMI<23 kg/m(2)), overweight (BMI 23-24.9 kg/m(2)), and obese (BMI ≥ 25 kg/m(2)) in accordance with BMI cutoffs for Asian populations. The impact of BMI on intravesical recurrence (IVR)-free survival, overall survival (OS), and cancer-specific survival (CSS) was evaluated using Kaplan-Meier analysis with the log-rank test and the Cox proportional hazard model. The median BMI of all patients was 24.2 kg/m(2) (interquartile range 22.2-25.8). There were no significant differences in the IVR-free survival rates according to BMI classification (p = 0.488). The 5-year OS and CSS rates were 58.8, 66.3, and 76.3 % (p = 0.057) and 67.4, 69.3, and 81.5 % (p = 0.021) in the normal, overweight, and obese groups, respectively. In the univariate analysis, obesity (BMI ≥ 25 kg/m(2)) was a significant predictor of better OS [hazard ratio (HR) 0.63; 95 % confidence interval (CI) 0.43-0.92, p = 0.017] and CSS (HR 0.53; 95 % CI 0.33-0.84, p = 0.007) than normal weight. However, these associations could not be confirmed in the multivariable analysis after adjusting for other clinicopathological factors, such as tumor stage, tumor grade, lymphovascular invasion, and surgical margin.

Question: Can body mass index predict survival outcomes in patients treated with radical nephroureterectomy for upper-tract urothelial carcinoma?

Our study results are inconclusive, in that, the multivariate analysis did not identify the influence of BMI on survival, although higher BMI appears clinically associated with favorable survival outcomes in Korean patients with UTUC.

Answer the question based on the following context: Atrial fibrillation (AF) is thought to be a progressive arrhythmia, starting with short paroxysmal episodes, until eventually, it becomes permanent. Evidence for this is limited to studies with short follow-up or with minimal cardiac rhythm monitoring. We utilised the continuous rhythm monitoring capabilities of implanted pacemakers to define better the natural history of AF. The study included 356 patients with pacemaker devices capable of continuous atrial rhythm monitoring (186 male, mean age (± SD) 79.5 ± 8.9 years). All clinical records, including history/physical examination reports, laboratory results, ECGs and Holter monitoring data were reviewed. Patients were included if AF episodes>30 s were documented. Permanent pacemaker diagnostic data were reviewed at least every 12 months. ACC/AHA/ESC guidelines were used to define AF episodes as paroxysmal, persistent or long-standing persistent/permanent. Study follow-up period (± SD) was 7.2 ± 3.1 years. Over the study period, 179 of 356 patients (50.3 %) had at least one episode of persistent AF. Of the 356 patients, 314 (88.2 %) had paroxysmal AF and 42 (11.8 %) had persistent AF at the time of diagnosis. The predominant AF subtype, at latest follow-up, was paroxysmal for 192 patients (53.9 %), persistent for 77 (21.6 %) and long-standing persistent/permanent for 87 (24.4 %). Univariable predictors of progression to persistent AF were (1) male gender, (2) increasing left atrial diameter (LAD), (3) reduced atrial pacing (AP) and (4) increasing ventricular pacing.

Question: The natural history of atrial fibrillation in patients with permanent pacemakers: is atrial fibrillation a progressive disease?

Although many patients with AF will have persistent episodes, long-term continuous pacemaker follow-up demonstrates that the majority will have a paroxysmal, as opposed to persistent, form of the arrhythmia.

Answer the question based on the following context: Patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a common disembryogenic defect with well-attested prevalence but dubious etiopathogenetic linkage with cryptogenic stroke and different clinical conditions. Transcranial color-coded Doppler (TCCD) assures high accuracy in diagnosing right-to-left shunt (RLS) and its functional aspects. Aim of the study was to evaluate RLS prevalence and degree in subjects submitted to TCCD for conditions theoretically associated or caused by paradoxical embolism to the brain. PFO assessment, performed in 10 major diagnostic categories and a control group, followed a standardized protocol with a 10 or 20 microbubbles (MB) cutoff to identify any or only large RLS, respectively. Among 2113 patients, a significant larger RLS prevalence was found in stroke (53.3%), TIA (45.7%) and migraine with aura (39.7%) when compared with non-migraineurs controls (25.5%). RLS degree was significantly higher in stroke and TIA patients: The ROC curve from MB load data helped to identify new cutoff values for both normal breathing (42 MB) and Valsalva (139 MB) tests. From logistic regression, a family history for PFO, ASA, and male gender appeared independent predictors of a RLS. By contrast, RLS seemed independent of white matter abnormalities presence on brain neuroimaging or stroke mimics.

Question: Is the search for right-to-left shunt still worthwhile?

In addition to recently defined criteria, genetically determined inheritable traits and epidemiologic characteristics (male gender) should be taken into account when assessing PFO and related cerebrovascular risk profile. A newly defined threshold in TCCD MB count is suggested to discriminate shunts related to stroke and TIA from innocent ones.

Answer the question based on the following context: To date, there are no prospective randomized studies that compare the outcome of endoscopic repair of primary versus recurrent inguinal hernias. It is therefore now attempted to answer that key question on the basis of registry data. In total, 20,624 patients were enrolled between September 1, 2009, and April 31, 2013. Of these patients, 18,142 (88.0%) had a primary and 2482 (12.0%) had a recurrent endoscopic repair. Only patients with male unilateral inguinal hernia and with a 1-year follow-up were included. The dependent variables were intra- and postoperative complications, reoperations, recurrence, and chronic pain rates. The results of unadjusted analyses were verified via multivariable analyses. Unadjusted analysis did not reveal any significant differences in the intraoperative complications (1.28 vs 1.33%; p = 0.849); however, there were significant differences in the postoperative complications (3.20 vs 4.03%; p = 0.036), the reoperation rate due to complications (0.84 vs 1.33%; p = 0.023), pain at rest (4.08 vs 6.16%; p<0.001), pain on exertion (8.03 vs 11.44%; p<0.001), chronic pain requiring treatment (2.31 vs 3.83%; p<0.001), and the recurrence rates (0.94 vs 1.45%; p = 0.0023). Multivariable analysis confirmed the significant impact of endoscopic repair of recurrent hernia on the outcome.

Question: Endoscopic repair of primary versus recurrent male unilateral inguinal hernias: Are there differences in the outcome?

Comparison of perioperative and 1-year outcome for endoscopic repair of primary versus recurrent male unilateral inguinal hernia showed significant differences to the disadvantage of the recurrent operation. Therefore, endoscopic repair of recurrent inguinal hernias calls for particular competence on the part of the hernia surgeon.

Answer the question based on the following context: There is an extended belief that the laparoscopic approach to left colectomy (LC) is technically more demanding and associated with more postoperative complications than to right colectomy (RC). However, there is no consensus in the literature about whether the short-term outcomes of RC differ from those of LC. The aim of this paper was to compare the postoperative course of patients undergoing RC and LC. We retrospectively analyzed 1000 consecutive patients who underwent a laparoscopic RC or LC between 1998 and 2012. Factors analyzed were intraoperative complications, surgical time, postoperative complications, and length of stay. The two groups were divided into four subgroups (neoplasia, diverticular disease, polyps, and others). LC was associated with more postoperative complications than RC and longer operative time both in the two main groups (postoperative complications 30 vs. 19%; operative time 139 vs. 118 min) and in the neoplasia subgroups (27 vs. 18%; 137 vs. 118 min). No differences between groups were found for rates of reintervention or death. Comparison between LC subgroups showed that the operative time was longer and the conversion rate was higher in the diverticular disease subgroup than in the neoplasia subgroup (155 vs. 137 min; 21 vs. 8%).

Question: Are there differences between right and left colectomies when performed by laparoscopy?

In this large cohort of patients undergoing laparoscopic colectomy, LC carried a higher risk than RC of postoperative complications. These findings provide new data on the differences between the two surgeries. Our findings strengthen the notion that right and left colectomies have a different intraoperative and postoperative course and should be analyzed as two separate entities.

Answer the question based on the following context: High-quality three-dimensional (3D) vision systems are now available for laparoscopic surgery and may improve surgical performance relative to two-dimensional (2D) laparoscopy. It is unclear whether 3D laparoscopy is superior to 3D robotic systems. The effect of surgeon experience on surgical performance with different instruments also remains unclear. This study compared the ability of experienced and inexperienced surgeons to perform a suturing task with 2D laparoscopy, 3D laparoscopy, and a 3D robot. The 20 recruited surgeons consisted of experts (≥100 laparoscopic cases, n = 9), surgeons with intermediate experience (20-99 cases, n = 7), and novices (<20 cases, n = 4). All performed a suturing task three times with each instrument. Task failure rates and completion times were measured. All novices failed to complete the task with 2D or 3D laparoscopy, but all completed the task with the robot. The intermediate group failed the task with 2D laparoscopy (23.8% failure rate) more often than with 3D laparoscopy (4.8%) or the robot (0%; P = 0.04). Expert failure rates were low for all instruments. Intermediate group task completion times were similar to 2D laparoscopy (median 312 s; range 229-495 s), 3D laparoscopy (324 s; 170-443 s), and the robot (319 s; 213-433 s) (P = 0.237). The expert times differed significantly (P = 0.01); post hoc analyses showed that their total completion time with 3D laparoscopy (177 s; 126-217 s) was significantly shorter than with 2D laparoscopy (244 s; 155-270 s; P = 0.004). It also tended to be shorter than with the robot (233 s; 187-461 s; P = 0.027).

Question: Is a robotic system really better than the three-dimensional laparoscopic system in terms of suturing performance?

Novices benefited particularly from the robot. The intermediate group completed the task equally well and equally quickly with 3D laparoscopy and the robot. The experts completed the task equally well regardless of instrument, but their times were much faster with 3D laparoscopy. Thus, well-trained laparoscopic surgeons may not really benefit from 3D robot systems if 3D laparoscopy is available.

Answer the question based on the following context: General practitioners (GPs) could play a central role in preventing travel-related health issues. The aim of this study was to assess, in travellers departing to developing countries from a French airport, the proportion of individuals having sought GP counseling before departure and to identify determinants for having consulted a GP. Cross-sectional study conducted between November 2012 and July 2013, in all adults living in France. Sociodemographic, health characteristics, type of travel and resources consulted before departure were collected. A descriptive analysis was performed. Determinants for having consulted a GP before departure were investigated using a logistic regression analysis. Of the 360 travellers included, 230 (64%) sought health counseling before departure. GPs were the main source of information for 134 (58%) travellers having sought health information and the only one for 49 (21%). Almost half of the travellers (48%) departing to sub-Saharan countries did not seek health counseling from a medical doctor (GP, non-GP specialist, specialist consulted in an international vaccination center or occupational physician). Individuals significantly more likely to travel without having consulted a GP were young and male, held foreign nationality, had travelled more than five times before, rarely consulted their GP and were travelling to a non-malarious area.

Question: Are French general practitioners consulted before travel to developing countries?

GPs were the main but not the only source of information and counseling before traveling to a developing country. This study helps identify the characteristics of individuals likely to travel without having consulted a GP before departure.

Answer the question based on the following context: To compare the outcomes of locking plate fixation versus casting for displaced distal radius fracture with unstable fracture pattern in active Chinese elderly people. Historical cohort study. Orthopaedic ward and clinic at Tseung Kwan O Hospital, Hong Kong. Between 1 May 2010 and 31 October 2013, 57 Chinese elderly people aged 61 to 80 years were treated either operatively with locking plate fixation (n=26) or conservatively with cast immobilisation (n=31) for unstable displaced distal radius fracture. Clinical, radiological, and functional outcomes were assessed at 9 to 12 months after treatment. The functional outcome (based on the quick Disabilities of the Arm, Shoulder and Hand score) was significantly better in the locking plate fixation group than in the cast immobilisation group, while clinical and radiological outcomes were comparable with those in other similar studies.

Question: Is locking plate fixation a better option than casting for distal radius fracture in elderly people?

Locking plate fixation resulted in better functional outcome for displaced distal radius fracture with unstable fracture pattern in active Chinese elderly people aged 61 to 80 years. Further prospective study with long-term follow-up is recommended.

Answer the question based on the following context: The reported prevalence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) varies among different groups of cardiac surgical patients. Moreover, the prognostic value of preoperative COPD in outcome prediction is controversial. The present study assessed the morbidity in the different levels of COPD severity and the role of pulmonary function indices in predicting morbidity in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). Patients who were candidates for isolated CABG with cardiopulmonary bypass who were recruited for Tehran Heart Center-Coronary Outcome Measurement Study. Based on spirometry findings, diagnosis of COPD was considered based on Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease category as forced expiratory volume in 1 s [FEV1]/forced vital capacity<0.7 (absolute value, not the percentage of the predicted). Society of Thoracic Surgeons (STS) definition was used for determining COPD severity and the patients were divided into three groups: Control group (FEV1>75% predicted), mild (FEV1 60-75% predicted), moderate (FEV1 50-59% predicted), severe (FEV1<50% predicted). The preoperative pulmonary function indices were assessed as predictors, and postoperative morbidity was considered the surgical outcome. This study included 566 consecutive patients. Patients with and without COPD were similar regarding baseline characteristics and clinical data. Hypertension, recent myocardial infarction, and low ejection fraction were higher in patients with different degrees of COPD than the control group while male gender was more frequent in control patients than the others. Restrictive lung disease and current cigarette smoking did not have any significant impact on postoperative complications. We found a borderline P = 0.057 with respect to respiratory failure among different patients of COPD severity so that 14.1% patients in control group, 23.5% in mild, 23.4% in moderate, and 21.9% in severe COPD categories developed respiratory failure after CABG surgery.

Question: Do preoperative pulmonary function indices predict morbidity after coronary artery bypass surgery?

Among post-CABG complications, patients with different levels of COPD based on STS definition, more frequently developed respiratory failure. This finding may imply the prognostic value of preoperative pulmonary function test for determining COPD severity and postoperative morbidities.

Answer the question based on the following context: Previous UK studies have reported disparities in HIV treatment outcomes for women. We investigated whether these differences persist in the modern antiretroviral treatment (ART) era. A single-centre cohort analysis was carried out. We included in the study all previously ART-naïve individuals at our clinic starting triple ART from 1 January 2006 onwards with at least one follow-up viral load (VL). Time to viral suppression (VS; first viral load < 50 HIV-1 RNA copies/mL), virological failure (VF; first of two consecutive VLs > 200 copies/mL more than 6 months post-ART) and treatment modification were estimated using standard survival methods. Of 1086 individuals, 563 (52%) were men whose risk for HIV acquisition was sex with other men (MSM), 207 (19%) were men whose risk for HIV acquisition was sex with women (MSW) and 316 (29%) were women. Median pre-ART CD4 count and time since HIV diagnosis in these groups were 298, 215 and 219 cells/μL, and 2.3, 0.3 and 0.3 years, respectively. Time to VS was comparable between groups, but women [adjusted hazard ratio (aHR) 2.32; 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.28-4.22] and MSW (aHR 3.28; 95% CI 1.91-5.64) were at considerably higher risk of VF than MSM. Treatment switches and complete discontinuation were also more common among MSW [aHR 1.38 (95% CI 1.04-1.81) and aHR 1.73 (95% CI 0.97-3.16), respectively]and women [aHR 1.87 (95% CI 1.43-2.46) and aHR 3.20 (95% CI 2.03-5.03), respectively] than MSM.

Question: Does gender or mode of HIV acquisition affect virological response to modern antiretroviral therapy (ART)?

Although response rates were good in all groups, poorer virological outcomes for women and MSW have persisted into the modern ART era. Factors that might influence the differences include socioeconomic status and mental health disorders. Further interventions to ensure excellent response rates in women and MSW are required.

Answer the question based on the following context: To assess the computed tomography (CT) portion of a positron emission tomography (PET)/CT, at lower dose without breath holding, as compared to diagnostic chest CT (dCTC), performed at regular dose with breath holding, and question the necessity of both for patient care in pediatric oncology. This retrospective study included 46 pediatric patients with histologically proven malignant tumors that had a total of 119 scans. A total of 29 discrepancies were found between dCTC and PET/CT reports.

Question: Is dedicated chest CT needed in addition to PET/CT for evaluation of pediatric oncology patients?

In the evaluation of metastatic thoracic disease in pediatric oncology patients, the non-breath holding CT portion of PET/CT has sensitivity and specificity that approaches dCTC.

Answer the question based on the following context: The purpose of this study was to determine the number and characteristics of US State Registrars of Vital Statistics (Vital Registrars) and State Systems Development Initiative (SSDI) Coordinators that link birth certificate and hospital discharge data as well as using linkage processes. Vital Registrars and SSDI Coordinators in all 52 vital records jurisdictions (50 states, District of Columbia, and New York City) were asked to complete a 41-question survey. We examined frequency distributions among completed surveys using SAS 9.3. The response rate was 100% (N = 52) for Vital Registrars and 96% (N = 50) for SSDI Coordinators. Nearly half of Vital Registrars (n = 22) and SSDI Coordinators (n = 23) reported that their jurisdiction linked birth certificate and hospital discharge records at least once in the last 4 years. Among those who link, the majority of Vital Registrars (77.3%) and SSDI Coordinators (82.6) link both maternal and infant hospital discharge records to the birth certificate. Of those who do not link, 43% of the Vital Registrars and 55% of SSDI Coordinators reported an interest in linking birth certificate and hospital discharge data. Reasons for not linking included lack of staff time, inability to access raw data, high cost, and unavailability of personal identifiers to link the two sources.

Question: Are Birth Certificate and Hospital Discharge Linkages Performed in 52 Jurisdictions in the United States?

Results of our analysis provide a national perspective on data linkage practices in the US. Our findings can be used to promote further data linkages, facilitate sharing of data and linkage methodologies, and identify uses of the resulting linked data.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of this retrospective study was to determine if some features of baseline (18)F-FDG PET images, including volume and heterogeneity, reflect clinical, histological or immunohistochemical characteristics in patients with stage II or III breast cancer (BC). Included in the present retrospective analysis were 171 prospectively recruited patients with stage II/III BC treated consecutively at Saint-Louis hospital. Primary tumour volumes were semiautomatically delineated on pretreatment (18)F-FDG PET images. The parameters extracted included SUVmax, SUVmean, metabolically active tumour volume (MATV), total lesion glycolysis (TLG) and heterogeneity quantified using the area under the curve of the cumulative histogram and textural features. Associations between clinical/histopathological characteristics and (18)F-FDG PET features were assessed using one-way analysis of variance. Areas under the ROC curves (AUC) were used to quantify the discriminative power of the features significantly associated with clinical/histopathological characteristics. T3 tumours (>5 cm) exhibited higher textural heterogeneity in (18)F-FDG uptake than T2 tumours (AUC<0.75), whereas there were no significant differences in SUVmax and SUVmean. Invasive ductal carcinoma showed higher SUVmax values than invasive lobular carcinoma (p = 0.008) but MATV, TLG and textural features were not discriminative. Grade 3 tumours had higher FDG uptake (AUC 0.779 for SUVmax and 0.694 for TLG), and exhibited slightly higher regional heterogeneity (AUC 0.624). Hormone receptor-negative tumours had higher SUV values than oestrogen receptor-positive (ER-positive) and progesterone receptor-positive tumours, while heterogeneity patterns showed only low-level variation according to hormone receptor expression. HER-2 status was not associated with any of the image features. Finally, SUVmax, SUVmean and TLG significantly differed among the three phenotype subgroups (HER2-positive, triple-negative and ER-positive/HER2-negative BCs), but MATV and heterogeneity metrics were not discriminative.

Question: Do clinical, histological or immunohistochemical primary tumour characteristics translate into different (18)F-FDG PET/CT volumetric and heterogeneity features in stage II/III breast cancer?

SUV parameters, MATV and textural features showed limited correlations with clinical and histopathological features. The three main BC subgroups differed in terms of SUVs and TLG but not in terms of MATV and heterogeneity. None of the PET-derived metrics offered high discriminative power.

Answer the question based on the following context: With the advent of biologic drugs in the management of moderate to severe psoriasis, there may have been a shift in therapeutic approach from rotational strategies to a unidirectional progression from topical treatments to the highest rung of the therapeutic ladder. We studied the frequency of switching from classic to biologic therapy and vice versa in a cohort of patients with psoriasis over a period of up to 5 years. Patients are included in the BIOBADADERM prospective registry when they are first prescribed any specific conventional or biologic systemic treatment. The data for each patient refer to the follow-up period from the time they entered the cohort until October 2013. To describe the pattern of switches from classic to biologic therapy and vice versa, we used the data in the registry on the first day of every 365-day period following the date each patient was included in the cohort. In total, 47.3% of the patients (926/1956) were prescribed a classic systemic drug and 52.7% (1030/1956) a biologic agent on entry into the study. Of the 741 patients who accumulated 5 years of follow-up, 21.9% (155) were receiving nonbiologic drugs and 78.1% (553) were on biologic therapy on the first day of their 5th year of follow-up.

Question: Does the treatment ladder for systemic therapy in moderate to severe psoriasis only go up?

The proportion of patients receiving biologic therapy increased with longer follow-up.

Answer the question based on the following context: This paper examines peer recruitment dynamics through respondent driven sampling (RDS) with a sample of injection drug users in Hartford, CT to understand the strategies participants use to recruit peers into a study and the extent to which these strategies may introduce risks above the ethical limit despite safeguards in RDS. Out of 526 injection drug users who participated in a mixed-method RDS methodology evaluation study, a nested sample of 61 participants completed an in-depth semi-structured interview at a 2-month follow-up to explore their experiences with the recruitment process. Findings revealed that participants used a variety of strategies to recruit peers, ranging from one-time interactions to more persistent strategies to encourage participation (e.g., selecting peers that can easily be found and contacted later, following up with peers to remind them of their appointment, accompanying peers to the study site, etc.). Some participants described the more persistent strategies as helpful, while some others experienced these strategies as minor peer pressure, creating a feeling of obligation to participate. Narratives revealed that overall, the probability of experiencing study-related risks remains relatively low for most participants; however, a disconcerting finding was that higher study-related risks (e.g., relationship conflict, loss of relationship, physical fights, violence) were seen for recruits who participated but switched coupons or for recruits who decided not to participate in the study and did not return the coupon to the recruiter.

Question: A qualitative analysis of peer recruitment pressures in respondent driven sampling: Are risks above the ethical limit?

Findings indicate that peer recruitment practices in RDS generally pose minimal risk, but that peer recruitment may occasionally exceed the ethical limit, and that enhanced safeguards for studies using peer recruitment methods are recommended. Suggestions for possible enhancements are described.

Answer the question based on the following context: To increase, in our sample, the proportion of family physicians who provided their patients with written physical activity prescriptions after the delivery of a 3-hour educational workshop with the provision of practical tools to facilitate behaviour change. A pre-post study. Abbotsford and Mission, British Columbia. All 158 physicians registered with the Abbotsford (121) or Mission (37) Divisions of Family Practice were invited to participate. A 3-hour educational workshop combined with practical tools. Educational content of the workshop included (1) assessing patients' physical activity levels, (2) using motivational interviewing techniques to encourage physical activity and (3) providing written physical activity prescriptions when appropriate. Practical tools to facilitate physician behaviour changes included a 'physical activity vital sign', and copies of the Exercise is Medicine Canada Prescription Pad. Participating physicians completed a bespoke questionnaire before and 4 weeks after their attendance at the workshop. The primary outcome was the change in the proportion of family physicians who reported providing written physical activity prescriptions. Exploratory outcomes included changes in other physical activity prescription behaviours, the perceived importance of various barriers to prescription, and knowledge and confidence in regards to physical activity prescription. McNemar's test evaluated changes in proportions before and after the workshop, while Wilcoxon signed-rank tests evaluated changes in Likert data. 25 family physicians completed the baseline questionnaire and attended the workshop, with 100% follow-up response rate. The proportion of family physicians who reported providing written physical activity prescriptions in their clinical practice increased significantly (p<0.05), from 10 (40%) at baseline to 17 (68%) 4 weeks after the intervention.

Question: Can a 3-hour educational workshop and the provision of practical tools encourage family physicians to prescribe physical activity as medicine?

Educational workshops combined with practical tools appear to be a promising method to encourage the use of written physical activity prescriptions among family physicians in this setting, over the short term.

Answer the question based on the following context: We report the radiographic and clinical response rate of stereotactic body radiation therapy (SBRT) compared with conventional fractionated external beam radiation therapy (CF-EBRT) for renal cell carcinoma (RCC) bone lesions treated at our institution. Forty-six consecutive patients were included in the study, with 95 total lesions treated (50 SBRT, 45 CF-EBRT). We included patients who had histologic confirmation of primary RCC and radiographic evidence of metastatic bone lesions. The most common SBRT regimen used was 27 Gy in 3 fractions. Median follow-up was 10 months (range, 1-64 months). Median time to symptom control between SBRT and CF-EBRT were 2 (range, 0-6 weeks) and 4 weeks (range, 0-7 weeks), respectively. Symptom control rates with SBRT and CF-EBRT were significantly different (P = .020) with control rates at 10, 12, and 24 months of 74.9% versus 44.1%, 74.9% versus 39.9%, and 74.9% versus 35.7%, respectively. The median time to radiographic failure and unadjusted pain progression was 7 months in both groups. When controlling for gross tumor volume, dose per fraction, smoking, and the use of systemic therapy, biologically effective dose ≥80 Gy was significant for clinical response (hazard ratio [HR], 0.204; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.043-0.963; P = .046) and radiographic (HR, 0.075; 95% CI, 0.013-0.430; P = .004). When controlling for gross tumor volume and total dose, biologically effective dose ≥80 Gy was again predictive of clinical local control (HR, 0.140; 95% CI, 0.025-0.787; P = .026). Toxicity rates were low and equivalent in both groups, with no grade 4 or 5 toxicity reported.

Question: Local control rates of metastatic renal cell carcinoma (RCC) to the bone using stereotactic body radiation therapy: Is RCC truly radioresistant?

SBRT is both safe and effective for treating RCC bone metastases, with rapid improvement in symptoms after treatment and more durable clinical and radiographic response rate. Future prospective trials are needed to further define efficacy and toxicity of treatment, especially in the setting of targeted agents.

Answer the question based on the following context: This study aims to answer the question to which extent even very heavy nicotine-dependent smokers can benefit from a 3-week inpatient smoking cessation program. A particular focus lies on analyzing the positive effects, which go above and beyond normally anticipated health benefits. This is a descriptive study observing 270 patients over a 1-year period consisting of recruitment, therapy, and two post-therapy follow-up visits at 6-month interval. Gender differences, changes in body weight, and factors relating to addiction and the nicotine withdrawal process are analyzed. In comparing successful participants-post-therapy nonsmokers-with less successful ones, our analysis identifies benefits and advantages an inpatient smoking cessation therapy can bring to even the heaviest smokers. At the 12-month post-therapy follow-up visit, 42.6% of participants were identified as nonsmokers. A total of 34.0% of participants took up smoking again. No data is available on the remaining participants. Nonsmokers experienced significant reduction in nicotine craving and withdrawal symptoms. In terms of body weight, increases were found in both, men and women, nonsmokers and smokers.

Question: Inpatient smoking cessation therapy: truth or dare?

Successful quitters fail to report of an unbearable strong desire to smoke. Such unfounded fear should be communicated. Weight gain remains an undesired side effect. Hence, it is crucial to diagnose individuals more prone to weight gain and offer coping strategies thus reducing the risk of developing obesity. Nevertheless, the outcome of the study should be an encouragement to also heavy smokers and empower them to undertake smoking cessation.

Answer the question based on the following context: The fetal weight estimation depends largely on the accuracy of abdominal circumference. The quality criteria are standardized to minimize variability and include visualization of the stomach. The objective of this study is to investigate the presence or absence of the stomach on the abdominal circumference for 3 different operators. We conducted re-reading of 204 ultrasound images in the second and third trimester of pregnancy, performed by three operators, at the maternity Port Royal in Paris in 2013. On these images, the presence of the stomach was sought and other quality criteria were verified. Among the 204 images, 166 included the stomach (81%). When studying for each of the three operators, there were 79%, 72% and 98% of the stomach into the abdominal circumference, a significant difference between operators (P=0.0029). Regarding the secondary criteria, the quality criteria found most often were the calipers and well placed ellipse (89%).

Question: Is the stomach a main landmark on the abdominal circumference?

According to the previous studies, the stomach seems to be a reference to search. Our study shows variability depending on the different operators. If a hierarchy of quality criteria is to be considered, the stomach does not seem to be the first criterion to search.

Answer the question based on the following context: To investigate the effect of sexual intercourse on spontaneous passage of distal ureteral stones. The patients were randomly divided into 3 groups with random number table envelope method. Patients in group 1 were asked to have sexual intercourse at least 3-4 times a week. Patients in group 2 were administered tamsulosin 0.4 mg/d. Patients in group 3 received standard medical therapy alone and acted as the controls. The expulsion rate was controlled after 2 and 4 weeks. Differences in the expulsion rate between groups were compared with the chi-square test for 3 × 2 tables. P<.05 was considered as statistically significant. The mean stone size was 4.7 ± 0.8 mm in group 1, 5 ± 1 mm group 2, and 4.9 ± 0.8 mm group 3 (P = .4). Two weeks later, 26 of 31 patients (83.9%) in the sexual intercourse group, and 10 of 21 patients (47.6%) in tamsulosin group passed their stones, whereas 8 of 23 patients (34.8%) in the control group passed their stones (P = .001). The mean stone expulsion time was 10 ± 5.8 days in group 1, 16.6 ± 8.5 days in group 2, and 18 ± 5.5 days in group 3 (P = .0001).

Question: Can Sexual Intercourse Be an Alternative Therapy for Distal Ureteral Stones?

Our results have indicated that patients who have distal ureteral stones ≤6 mm and a sexual partner may be advised to have sexual intercourse 3-4 times a week to increase the probability of spontaneous passage of the stones.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine the effect of sickle cell disease (SCD) on hospital resource use among patients admitted for priapism. Using the Nationwide Inpatient Sample, a weighted sample of 12,547 patients was selected with a primary diagnosis of priapism from 2002 to 2011. Baseline differences for patient demographics and hospital characteristics were compared between SCD and non-SCD patients. Multivariate analysis was performed to identify the effect of SCD on length of stay, use of penile operations, blood transfusion, and cost. The proportion of SCD patients was 21.5%. SCD patients were younger, more often black, more likely to have Medicaid insurance, and treated more frequently in Southern urban teaching hospitals. SCD was a significant predictor of having a blood transfusion (odds ratio [OR], 16.3; P<.001), and an elongated length of stay (OR, 1.42; P<.001). SCD was associated with less penile operations (OR, 0.40; P<.001). When SCD patients did have an operation, it was performed later in the admission (mean, 0.87 vs 0.47 days; P<.001). SCD was not a significant predictor of increased cost (OR, 1.02; P = .869).

Question: Sickle Cell Disease in Priapism: Disparity in Care?

SCD patients represent a demographically distinct subgroup of priapism patients with different patterns of resource use manifested by longer hospital stays and more blood transfusions. Moreover, despite evidence that immediate treatment of priapism results in improved erectile function outcomes, SCD patients had less surgical procedures for alleviation of acute priapism events.

Answer the question based on the following context: To identify serial changes in the incidence of leukocyturia after photoselective laser-vaporization of the prostate (PVP), to determine whether postoperative leukocyturia could be associated with surgical outcomes, and to identify predictors of persistent leukocyturia after PVP. A total of 102 men without leukocyturia on baseline urinalysis but underwent PVP were included in this prospective study. Treatment outcomes were assessed at 1 week, and 1, 3, 6, and 12 months postoperatively using International Prostate Symptom Score, Overactive Bladder Symptom Score (OABSS), uroflowmetry, postvoid residual, urinalysis, urine culture, and serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA). The incidences of leukocyturia and dysuria at 1 week, and 1, 3, and 6 months postoperatively were 100.0%, 51.0%, 19.6%, and 0.0% and 30.3%, 25.4%, 5.9%, and 0.0%, respectively. Only one case of bacteriuria occurred throughout the entire follow-up period. At 1 month postoperatively, decrease in subtotal storage symptoms score, quality-of-life index, and total OABSS in patients without leukocyturia were significantly greater than in those with leukocyturia. At 3 months postoperatively, patients without leukocyturia showed greater improvement in subtotal storage symptoms score, total OABSS, quality-of-life index, bladder voiding efficiency, and postvoid residual compared with those with leukocyturia. On logistic regression analysis, age, PSA, prostate size, and amount of energy utilized were independent predictors of persistent leukocyturia 3 months after surgery.

Question: Does Postoperative Leukocyturia Influence Treatment Outcomes After Photoselective Vaporization of the Prostate (PVP)?

Leukocyturia is observed in all patients immediately after PVP, but its incidence decreases with time. It may have adverse effects on treatment outcomes. Also, older age, higher serum PSA, larger prostate size, and greater amount of energy utilized may be risk factors of persistent leukocyturia.

Answer the question based on the following context: To investigate the relationship between bladder wall thickness (BWT) and uroflowmetric parameters and the International Prostate Symptoms Score (IPSS) in patients with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS). A total of 236 male patients who had LUTS-related benign prostatic enlargement with serum prostate-specific antigen level ≤4 ng/mL were included in this study. Age and duration of LUTS and IPSS were recorded. BWT was measured using 7.5 mHz suprapubic ultrasonography before uroflowmetry and postvoid residual (PVR) was calculated thereafter. The relationship between BWT and poor indicators for bladder outlet obstruction (BOO) (IPSS>19, Qmax<15 mL/min, PVR>100 cm(3)) was investigated. The mean age was 62.5 ± 8.1 (39-77) years and the mean BWT was 3.8 ± 1.5 (1.4-8.7) mm. The mean IPSS, Qmax, PVR, and duration of LUTS were 17.7, 13.7 mL/min, 89.9, and 46.5 months, respectively. A positive correlation was found between BWT and IPSS, PVR and duration of LUTS, whereas a negative correlation was found between BWT and Qmax (P<.001). BWT increased when number of BOO parameters increased. BWT was 2.9 in patients without BOO parameters whereas BWT was 3.5, 4.1, and 4.5 mm in patients with any one, any two, and all parameters of BOO, respectively.

Question: Can Bladder Wall Thickness Measurement Be Used for Detecting Bladder Outlet Obstruction?

BWT increased when number of BOO parameters increased. We believe that measurement of BWT is an easy, quick, and repeatable test to predict BOO severity.